01-30-2007, 05:26 AM
<!--QuoteBegin-->QUOTE<!--QuoteEBegin-->1. Are Western traditions innately richer because they have the moral ought?
My answer: No. In fact, in my book on ethics I will prove the following: the non-normative ethics are richer: <b>Under specific assumptions, in limited conditions, one can derive a normative ethics from a non-normative one. </b><b>The relation between non-normative ethics and normative ethics is analogous to the relation between Einsteinian theory and Newtonian theory: </b>under specific assumptions, in limited conditions, you can derive the Newtonian theory from the Einsteinian theory.<!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->
My answer: No. In fact, in my book on ethics I will prove the following: the non-normative ethics are richer: <b>Under specific assumptions, in limited conditions, one can derive a normative ethics from a non-normative one. </b><b>The relation between non-normative ethics and normative ethics is analogous to the relation between Einsteinian theory and Newtonian theory: </b>under specific assumptions, in limited conditions, you can derive the Newtonian theory from the Einsteinian theory.<!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->