![]() |
Removing The Sheen From Buddhism - Printable Version +- Forums (http://india-forum.com) +-- Forum: Indian History & Culture (http://india-forum.com/forumdisplay.php?fid=3) +--- Forum: Indian Culture (http://india-forum.com/forumdisplay.php?fid=11) +--- Thread: Removing The Sheen From Buddhism (/showthread.php?tid=247) |
Removing The Sheen From Buddhism - Husky - 08-04-2012 Dhu (assuming he ever reads this), Regarding post 179. To avoid taking too long, will just state stuff matter-of-factly: 1. On samurai: even Japanese Buddhist authors on the subject explain that, upon entry into Japan, Buddhism converted the existing warrior classes* [along with the government and administration. <- This was part of the usual top-down replacement/conversion process which Buddhism used frequently in Asia, after which the government/admin/military would "trickle down" the new religion onto the laity. A feature of missionary religion.] * That is, Buddhist historians admit the martial caste pre-existed (in the pre-existing status-quo of Shinto society), and that Buddhism drew its converts from there. And in the last major re-take for Shinto, it was again Samurai professing Shinto who retook the Japanese government. If Buddhism is to be specifically related back to Samurai, then so can christianism be: Portuguese catholic priests in the 16th or so century converted a significant number of Japanese Samurai too (and admin and local retainer), and these subsequently became catholic Samurai marching under a christian banner upon Buddhist and Shinto warriors. But by definition and origin, they were Shinto. That is why there are no *Samurai* (not to be confused with "any" type of warrior/martial caste) in Indian Buddhism, Sri Lankan Buddhism, Chinese or other Asian Buddhisms. Ninjas are Shinto too in origin and derivation. And so was another famous Japanese martial caste, except that this last got infiltrated by one Bauddhified clan trying to bauddhify the remaining 5 or 6 staunchly Shinto ones. (The arguments of the Shinto side are very instructive, especially the degree of Immunity to subversion exhibited.) 2. Yuddhisthira (in the MBh) says that the veda is seen in all the Varnas. And this goes all the way back to before. The underlying "self-evidential" nature of the matter can be phrased as a predicate: (Kshatriyas | Shudras | Vaishyas | Brahmanas) <---> Vedic where the double-headed arrow is supposed to be the logical equivalence operator. That is, kShatriya (etc) implies Vedic and vice-versa (i.e. Vedic likewise implies any of the varnas). They're all *defined* by the Vedic religion. It's more than merely a community identifier: it's tied to religion. People who convert out to other religions either howl at varNas - treating it as a crime for which Vedic religion is to blame, which is then often reduced to "brahminism" exclusively (conveniently forgetting that kShatriyas, for example, were no less Vedic, e.g. the solar and lunar dynasties from the 2 Itihasas) - while at times still hanging on to their own pre-conversion identity for superficial self-identification (where in the new religion it's reduced to ethnicity or mere ancestry, since they're no longer Vedic), seeing no hypocrisy in this. But that's part of the Replacement procedure: superficial identity terms and forms kept intact, and even *transferred* into becoming "ties" to the replacement religion. The same is apparent still: apparent in many ex-Hindu converts to christianism who hang on to not just their jatis after conversion, but also Varnas: e.g. Mangalorean catholics meaninglessly calling themselves brahmins. I suppose christians must argue to themselves that if the nastika religions can get away with it - and that "therefore" such identities could not be directly related to Vedic religion, and would apply to "any and all Indians" - so should christianism. Removing The Sheen From Buddhism - Husky - 08-04-2012 The above is separate, but this post belongs with the next 3. 1/4 1. Found some handy and to the point quotes to back up stuff I had merely stated earlier about - how Adi Shankara can't be accused of Buddhism and - how the 3 Vedantic views were established before the 3 Vedantic acharyas who famously espoused them again in a later age. (Not that this is surprising: e.g. before any of the 3 Vedantic acharyas, the 3 traditional POVs concerning (a)dvaitam were already part of Vaishnavam, Shaivam and Shaktam.) Quote:In his [Adi Shankara's] BrahmasUtra BhAShya, after giving the position of the four systems of Buddhist philosophy, inculcating realism, idealism, and nihilism, and after refuting them, he concludes that the TathAgata [Buddha] who indulged in such mutually contradictory teachings must have been either a fool or a knave -- a fool in case he unknowingly preached contradictions or a knave if he preached these purposely to confuse people and send them to their doom. I.e. Shankara can hardly have been a Buddhist since he thought Buddha [that is, Buddha's teachings which started from considering but then specifically broke away from the Upanishads etc] was unwittingly or deliberately wrong. Quote:The VedAnta SUtras themselves mention three traditions of VedAnta -- those of Audalomi, Ashmaratya and KAshakR^itsna. ...(Both the above quoteblocks are stolen from a book by a Hindu. I.e. not an alien. <- It matters to me, which is obviously why I mention it.) 2. Also relevant is the following essay by a Japanese author, taken from a book of essays by different - non-Hindu and definitely foreign I think - writers. Fortunately, no scanning's even needed as it's on Googlebooks, providing easy screengrabs. The pages of the essay are put up in the next 3 posts below. It's from pages 18-29 of: books.google.com/books?id=JugqR3unjB4C (Note that a direct translation of Shankara's comment described in the first quoteblock of this post is also found on the screengrab of p. 22 in post #184 below) Disclaimers: - While the Japanese author doesn't seem offensive, I *don't* recommend the book: e.g. the very next essay is by the insidious inculturating Jesuit Francis Clooney. (Those who don't know who he is, search IF for "clooney".) Clearly Clooney's writing in the book for a reason - christianism - and that renders the entire book suspicious, not to mention that it's mostly by a bunch of aliens writing about an aspect of Hindu religion, like dabblers like to do. - And I don't agree with all of the essay by the Japanese author either, but if I had to go over all the points of contention using extracts from elsewhere I'll be here till the cows come mooing home. :pass: For one thing, there are several people who aren't alive to defend themselves/defend those they knew in person from suppositions made. Further, while the article acquits Shankara of the invalid "hidden Buddhist" accusation, it does bring to fore more serious problems/suppositions/projections that have been waiting in line, and which will thus now be up front for needing tackling in future. They concern [Advaita] Vedanta, naturally (and its relation with the rest of Hindu religion). They will therefore easily affect self-subversionists among those Hindus of the New-age "Let's Vedanta" kind. (They can not remotely affect the traditional views of traditional Advaitic Hindus, who never separated Vedanta from the Vedas and don't remove the Gods from Hindu religion either.) But alien dabblers in Vedanta are those who find these problems most useful in order to do what many a dabbler usually does: try to cut out Hindu religion piecemeal for "universal" appropriation. (But alien dabbling is a direct product of christoconditioning: were it not for christianism, there would be no alienated hence no dabblers. Christianism generally uses the "piecemeal" approach too to forcibly separate what it can from theistic Hindu religion, but applies the procedure in order to graft those same things onto the inverted-theism of christianism instead - e.g. Yoga, Vedanta, etc.) Anyway, western literature has been cutting deep into the issue for a long time, creating a whole class of problems that will avalanche eventually or else subtly subvert widely, though they are at present usually directed most verbosely and fearsomely at Hellenismos. + The essay is reposted here only to show up the invalidity of accusing Adi Shankara of "hidden (or any) Buddhism". Though he didn't "defeat" Buddhism - since that was something Hindus before him had already accomplished - he *was* setting Hindu religion internally in order, particularly the Vedanta aspect and its relation to the rest. His adversaries were therefore mainly internals. E.g. the primary being the late (non-theistic) Samkhyans (Adi Shankara appears to have no issue with the general Samkhyan enumeration or its earlier explications such as in the Gita and the Upanishads). But as part of the process of setting the Hindu religion internally in order, it also required refuting the external stuff/external wrong views on Hindu materials. Which particularly included keeping the Vedantic POV away from any bauddhifications encroaching on it (bauddhification is what seems to be referred to in the Japanese writer's essay as "buddhicisation" or something), something Other Heathens elsewhere had to do in different ways. It's at this point - of considering Buddhism's views where they touch on Upanishadic thought - that Shankara also turned to refute Buddhist misinterpretations of the Vedanta, which essentially means refuting *Buddhism* itself, since Buddhist speculations proceed entirely from Upanishadic precursors (that is, there's no Buddhism without pre-existing Vedic religion, specifically Upanishadic thought). Adi Shankara wasn't the first or only Hindu to do such refutation of external views on Hindu matters for internal/housekeeping purposes, but he was certainly one of those who's rightfully credited with doing this. The article also indicates that - what it calls "orthodox" - Hindus viewed Buddhist interpretations of Vedic religion (specifically of the Vedanta aspect, since that's the area Buddhism concerned itself with) as mistaken*, and that this necessarily extends to Buddhism's continuing to conveniently misread its own ideas, views and conclusions into the Bhagavad Gita and other mainstream *Hindu* materials: Buddhist views on these materials remain mistaken from the so-called "orthodox" Hindu [rather plain Hindu] POV. And the Hindu POV matters, since the very materials in consideration *are* Hindu and not Buddhist: Buddhism merely seeks self-vindication in such Hindu materials as they form the backdrop and originating train of thought from which Buddhism diverged. * And in this respect too, Adi Shankara was merely one of a great many precursors and successors, yet "curiously" he keeps getting singled out for it. + The article further states in passing (i.e. self-evidentially) what's well-known: that the "popular Hinduism of the masses" - that is, the Piety to the Hindu Gods, which exists in the Vedas itself - naturally preceded the Adi Shankaracharya too. [<- This is generally denied only by opportunistic missionary ideologies like christianism, neo-Buddhisms etc, seeking to divorce the Hindu laity from their ancestral religion and hoping to claim a greater ancientry for their own ideologies.] Obvious. But still, worth observing. Removing The Sheen From Buddhism - Husky - 08-04-2012 2/4 The source for the following is mentioned in #182 above. (Note: the book wherein this essay is found is not recommended, plus I don't agree with everything in the essay posted here itself.) Note there's no point reading only the first few pages. If you're going to read it, read it until the pages posted in 4/4. ![]() ![]() Cont. in next Removing The Sheen From Buddhism - Husky - 08-04-2012 3/4 Again: the source for the following is mentioned in #182 above. (Note: the book wherein this essay is found is not recommended, plus I don't agree with everything in the essay posted here itself.) ![]() ![]() Cont. in next again Removing The Sheen From Buddhism - Husky - 08-04-2012 Post 4/4 Once more: the source for the following is mentioned in #182 above. (Note: the book wherein this essay is found is not recommended, plus I don't agree with everything in the essay posted here itself.) ![]() ![]() (C'est tout.) Removing The Sheen From Buddhism - Husky - 09-10-2012 ravilochanan.blogspot.com/2007/05/tirupati-is-not-buddhist-shrine-answer_05.html Tirupati is not a Buddhist Shrine - An Answer to Dr. Jamanadas Wish I'd found this earlier, would have saved so much trouble. It's very long. But some stuff in it is definitely worth reading. I don't agree with everything--e.g. the writer continues the assumption that Ilango Adigal who authored Cilappadikaram was a Jain. Ironically some of the reasons he cites to prove various Hindu kings wrongly claimed for Buddhism were actually Hindus, is exactly true for Ilango Adigal too: attends a Vedic yagnya. And at least the article doesn't shy away from noticing Buddhist inculturation on/usurpation from Hindu religion. Note also how neo-Buddhists don't just identify the fictive Potalaka (of the very much invented Avalokiteshwara) in Shabari to claim the Ayyappa Kovil+land (and Hindus) there, and elsewhere also identify Potalaka with Potiyil (to claim the obvious), but have also been claiming Tiruvenkata hills area as "Potalaka" apparently. I'm surprised the Hindus who so readily donated Ayyappa to Buddhism didn't donate Tirupati to Buddhism with as great an ease. Or maybe they'll try that in some nearby future? Removing The Sheen From Buddhism - Husky - 12-28-2012 Two excerpts relevant to a matter I was trying to bring up recently. Seems that - for now at least - even wacky admits to some basics: 1. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Brahma_(Buddhism) Quote:Brahmà(Buddhism) 2. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sakra_(Buddhism) Quote:à šakra (Buddhism) 1. Note that while I do consciously bring up Indra - the devaraja of Hindu Swarga - when mentioning the Jade Emperor of Daoist Heaven, clearly I would only ever do this to a Hindu audience in case they may not already be familiar with the Jade Emperor. And I *only* do so in order to (hopefully) convey the sort of exalted and central position that the Jade Emperor has in Daoism and among Daoists. That is, Hindus know who Indra is to Hindus. If Hindus have not heard of the Jade Emperor, you can sort of "explain" to Hindoos what he means to Daoists by saying superficially-acceptable - because relatable - things like "the Jade Emperor is to Daoists 'sort of' what Indra is to Hindus". But - like Daoists - of course I certainly don't confuse the *Hindu* Indra aka Shakra (one of his titles in the Vedas, I imagine hearing) with the Daoist Jade Emperor. And I most certainly don't believe in the Buddhist invented clone called Shakra, which Buddhism used to encroach not just on the Hindu Indra but also on the Daoist Emperor. Fortunately they failed, but the Daoists explain this better. Hmmm. That just reminded me of some rather interesting stuff on Daoism that I still need to post. 2. The reason for posting the above excerpts, from wackypedia though they be, is that they are very convenient: they admit to the Buddhist cloning process, which consists of Buddhism often copying the names and titles and even primary descriptions of Hindu Gods and then using these to construct/invent Buddhist fictional characters which diverge from the Hindu orignals. (And to be clear: these Buddhist clones *are* fiction. <- That's what the admission in the reference to Buddhist 'borrowing' from pre-Buddhist religion is all about.) Most importantly the two excerpts above - the one on BrahmA and the other on Indra (and the rest of the tridasha) - admit that the Buddhist clones are not the same as the Hindu originals which they were based on. I.e. the Hindu brahmA and indra are NOT the same as the false Buddhist copies of these. The very characters were changed: they were turned into upholders "protectors" of Buddhism, instead of being upholders of the Vedic religion, which is what the originals by the name of Brahma and Indra are. (Though obvious, it is even more important to state vehemently that the Jade Emperor - one of the core Gods of Daoism - is an upholder of the Daoism. He is not remotely a "protector of the Buddhist religion" - being indeed in no way related to Buddhism - and therefore can't be confused with the fictional Buddhist "Shakra" cloned from the original Hindu Indra aka Shakra.) [color="#0000FF"]INSERT x-post:[/color] The Hindu Maara aka Manmatha, the PuShpabaaNa, is obviously also unrelated to the Buddhist Maara who is likewise said to be with Pushpabaana: [quote name='Husky' date='22 December 2012 - 09:35 PM' timestamp='1356191879' post='116358'] These original Hindu Gods have as much in common with the Buddhist pseudo-copies made from them, as the original Hindu God Manmatha has to do with his Buddhist cloned "counterpart" - who also retains the name Maara and who is also still described as puShpabaaNa (e.g. in the Dhammapada, IIRC), but who has been dubbed Da Evil One of Buddhism. <- Buddhism doesn't just mean this theoretically/symbolically (though even dubbing him "evil one" for symbolic reasons just because his work/ways were then seen as an impediment to [Buddhist] nirvaNa is still going too far IMO), but it also additionally promotes a literal view on the matter. In contrast, the Hindu Maara is of course not remotely evil, but is in fact praised in various stotras ...[/quote] If there were no Hindu, Daoist, Shinto etc originals <=> there'd never have been Buddhist clones of these. <- Take away the LHS and there IS NO RHS, thus showing that the RHS is an invention dependent on LHS. What is it about missionary religions that they always have to either/or 1. encroach on pre-existing religions (Gods and practices) and 2. at best can only invent further fictions of their own. That is, why do they never seem to have *real* Gods of their *own*? E.g. Buddhism tries such tricks on Daoist and Shinto Gods in China and Japan, and the only actually Buddhist 'novelties' tend to be of the obvious fictional types such as Avalokiteshvara (though itself a Buddhist clone of and replacement for the Hindu Maheshwara, hence dependent on pre-existing Hindu religion for fashioning the Avalokiteshwara concept too) and Vajrapani (partial replacement for the real i.e. Vedic Indra, e.g. seen in the transfer of Indra's famous Ayudha). So what was that about the Vedic religion and those who would preserve it being a "swindle" again? When clearly Buddhism stole Hindu (not to mention Others') Gods - after hissing at Hindus etc for these very things - and then Buddhism spun Buddhist inventions off these (and Buddhism *knows* very well they were spin-offs) only to next peddle these fictions on lay heathen populations in order to make converts using their pre-existing attachments. I note the shoe fits the accusers: *Swindlers*. "Oeeeeee.... Dat gaf groot gedonder! 't Werd haast 'n handgemeen Maar ik bleef er nuchter onder en ik riep er dwars doorheen: Hou maar op, ik blijf erbij!" <rest is N/A> Anyway, at the least: the Hindu brahmA and indra (and Manmatha and all of the Hindu tridasha/koTi) are not be mistaken for their Buddhist copies. -> Different characters, different cosmologies = different identities, even for those Hindus who wish to believe in the existence of the late, quaint Buddhist clones of the real Hindu originals. Oh and shouldn't forget the tiny print: the *Hindu* stotras, mantras and ritual practices on these and all *Hindu* Gods are exclusively about the *Hindu* Gods (and not about the Buddhist clones), therefore. These things being *Hindu* not Buddhist religion. Meaning: non-shareable/non-transferrable. <- Actually, I like how the Daoists draw that line: thick, dark, unmistakeable, non-negotiable... ADDED: Though this next is taken from a book I wouldn't otherwise ever have chosen to grab quotes from, this bit seems relevant to the matter of there having existed a dedicated following for (the Hindu) BrahmA among Hindus: Quote:There is evidence of sects devoted to Brahma in the 4th century BC. I guess that means it's known that *at least* as late as the 4th century BCE (and probably for some time later, even though no specific evidence is mentioned), the *Hindu* Brahma had specifically *dedicated* followers among Hindus, the way there are still dedicated followers for the other 2 Gods of the Trimoorti (Vaishnavas and Shaivas). Also from the same source, which shows the sort of important Hindu texts from which Hindus' ongoing perception of the Hindu brahmA derives: Quote:[The Satapatha Upanishad] says that Brahma is Swayambhu or self-existent: he had no beginning and no end. Brahma and the gods rose out of the waters before the creation of the world as it is now. From him descended all the rishis (sages). There's a rather interesting question that can be posed from some of the stuff pasted in this post. (<- Ooo, accidental alliteration. Gah, it's becoming terminal.) Where was I? Oh yes: 'interesting' question. Or rather, interesting direction of inquiry off a commonly-asked question. Removing The Sheen From Buddhism - Husky - 02-24-2013 In the rather late Chinese Buddhist fictional novel (JttW), Buddhism repeated the same behaviour pattern: it decided that Daoist characters would accompany a bodhi-something (bodhidharma?) to India, and that they needed bauddhification. One of these is a very famous and well-loved Daoist God, who's highly placed in the Daoist pantheon. Buddhism conspired that this God (as other Daoist characters) would need a great fall from grace. So the Buddhist novel declared he was lecherous and had intimidated a Daoist Goddess, who had appealed to Daoist Heaven for help, and that he was thereupon punished for his lecherous pursuit of the Goddess by Daoist Heaven with a reduction in his status (no longer a God) and kicked out of Heaven. (This is why Buddhism started representing this God with the head of a pig.) Having thus written him out of the Daoist pantheon, Buddhism's next lie was to make it so that some Buddha entity got all compassionate about him and redeemed him, and that he thus became a Bauddhified bodhisattva type character. Buddhism's great hope was to thus subvert the Chinese laity (who were always Daoist) into seeing their great Daoist God as a lecherous entity that needed Bauddhistic "salvation" (i.e. conversion) in order to still be respectable. In essence Buddhism, with its lying (sorry, fictionalising) scored for itself moral points: apparently Daoism could not prevent lechery, not even in the ranks of Daoist Gods. Daoist Gods did not have the compassion of the (many fictional) Buddhas and hence could not redeem those who turned out subpar. That Buddhism had what it took to create divinity. Thus finally leading to the false Buddhist conclusion that Buddhism, and not Daoism, is what generates and possesses Divinity. The other false notions that Buddhism wanted to instill into the Chinese populace was that this Daoist God (whom the Buddhist cloning-and-mangling process reinvented as lecherous) was not worthy of popular worship. Note the 'cleverness': it was *Buddhism* that implicated Daoist Gods and Heaven using fictions that never took place. It was then Buddhism that declared itself superior. These are not 2 subsects of the same native religion trying to outdo each other. It's an alien, invasive religion, attacking the native religion of a populace, trying to replace it (or its head) with itself. The prequel to the novel, using typical Buddhist techniques of using consciously-invented fiction* as propaganda against native religion, had already declared Buddha superior to the Jade Emperor and all of Daoist Heaven. [* Note: not even pseudo-history, but openly-acknowledged fiction. This is a unique feature of Buddhism. Christianism pretends its propaganda against other religions is history, i.e. fact. Buddhism never bothered. It churned out openly fantastical and implausible stories, which it never pretended were history but admitted were mere parable containing moral lessons - usually on the superiority of Buddhism 'compassion' - but nevertheless deliberately created and used these parables/fictions as propaganda against native heathen religions.] Despite Buddhism's desperate attempts at subverting the heathen perceptions of the Chinese laity in this matter, it only partially succeeded in its aims. Buddhism did not manage to de-popularise worship of the Daoist God despite its desperate tactics, but succeeded in another - unexpected aspect - the laity (subverted by such Buddhist lying) do indeed continue to worship the God despite Buddhism's scheming against him, but some laity now worship him as having the head of a pig: something which he does not have and never had, apparently. Traditional Daoists have been working hard to rectify the error. IIRC, I recently even read that Daoists are ensuring the elimination of the false statues where he is represented with the head of a pig, so that Daoists aren't duped by the Buddhist lies into buying those anymore, but would instead acquire (or create) the correct vigrahas: where he has the original head of the God. Note that it's not that Daoists have anything particularly against pigs, but this God simply does not have the head of one. (As I understand, it seems even the confused laity didn't accept that he ever chased after the Moon Goddess. Rather they appear to read this as a fantastical 'feature' of the Buddhist novel.) IN REALITY - i.e. beyond the late, fraudulent Buddhist lying against Daoism (and the Buddhist author very much had it in for Daoism) - it turns out that, as traditional Daoists explain: - the Daoist God was never lecherous, he was ever of noble and perfect character (in case you couldn't work that out) - never had the head of a pig - these Gods never got kicked out of Daoist Heaven, but remain part of it still - they never met any Buddha - not the historical one or fictional ones - never learnt the 'compassion' of Buddha and never became bodhisattvas - they have nothing to do with Buddhism The lesson that the Chinese laity should have learned (and many did indeed learn - even before these late novels, which is why in early centuries, the Chinese had tried to kick Buddhism out of their country) is not that their native religion had any faults, but that Buddhism has a tendency to lie damnably against other religions. Buddhism couldn't catch on in a population as much as its peddlers wanted it to (or pretended it could). So Buddhism latched onto popular Gods, and tried to claim them for Buddhism (often by mangling them first). Just like the Hindu Indra and BrahmA are real and have nothing to do with their fictional, bauddified 'Buddhist' clones, the original Daoist Gods alluded to in this post are real and have nothing to do with their late, fictional, bauddified 'Buddhist' clones either. No matter that late Buddhist fictionalising tried to project its narrative into earlier Daoist history. The moral that Hindus - and everyone heathen really - can take from this, is that if Buddhism ever describes a heathen God as behaving unGodlike, it must be Buddhist fictionalising at work again, rather than taking the Buddhist spin at face value. (Same conclusion as when Buddhism declares a heathen God is magically a bodhisattva/part of Buddhist cosmology.) On another matter, but still concerning the same geography, Buddhism had invented a special Buddha (i.e. one of the many fictional Buddhas) which it declared was appointed specifically for the conversion - I mean (bauddhific) salvation - of the Chinese*. Sort of like how christianism had invented the fictional santa thomas and declared said fiction was appointed specifically for the conversion of Asians like Indians and Chinese. Buddhism had written this role for their character for the same reason that christianism wrote the same sort of role for thomas: as a banner (and excuse) for conversion to the new religion. This Buddha and the purpose conveniently invented for him were yet another Buddhist Swindle <- to use that common Buddhist accusation against others. Not my words, right? They started it. And they knew exactly what they were doing. (But heathens are going to finish it - the difference is that heathens don't need to lie against Buddhism, the way Buddhism has continuously lied against its perceived competition, in order to reveal the real swindling. No, it's not okay. If it had stopped centuries ago, it might have been forgivable. But it keeps going and going and going, since people never actively put a stop to it. Instead silly Indians in love with the notion that Buddhism=compassion - and nothing else is - peddle even the most frightful Buddhist fables about as fact: down to anti-heathen fables, including even ones that encroach on heathenisms to donate these to Buddhism. This has to stop.) [* I could be confusing myself with other buddhist characters, but I think this particular concocted Buddha was called Manjushri?] Removing The Sheen From Buddhism - Husky - 05-08-2013 The following is relevant in this thread. I'm pleased someone wrote it. :at last: It's actually much needed. My profuse comments are all over the place but are at least demarcated by being in purple again. But better yet is that my comments can be easily avoided by reading the article at the link: haindavakeralam.com/HkPage.aspx?PAGEID=17262 Quote:A Rejoinder to Hoole: Tamil Hinduism and Arumuka Navalar Note how Hoole - whose claims are being refuted above - is typically some SL christo. I'm sure that we'll start seeing even more of SL christoism openly putting their claws into SL's native Hindus soon, since the christian LTTE has been decommissioned and so christinanity no longer has any real use for SL Hindus. Hoole - who has parroted fables in line with those spun by some SL Buddhist monks - also shows another pattern that we're not unlikely to see in future: SL christos sidling up to SL Buddhism and hoping the SL Buddhists are stupid enough to overlook that the whole LTTE terrorism thing was a christian op (with brainwashed once-Hindus as mere footsoldiers) and christian eelam remains a christian project (though no doubt they'll expand that last to a larger "christian SL + christian India" enterprise in sufficient time, which also happens to be in line with Papal commandments too). Christianism slowly trying to cosy up with SL Buddhism would certainly parallel its larger game in the subcontinent: in India, christists are roping in neo-Buddhists in their efforts to rewrite Hindu history. I've noticed examples of this in matters India-wide, but it's especially steaming up in TN (as part of the whole "christo eelam" project). Anyway, it's not like they're going to leave out the rest of the nation: that's what the whole ur-Shramanism concoction is for. Eventually it will be developed even further to come to the same point as the history rewriting has come to in the south (i.e. christianisation/shramanisation of Hindus' history). The above article can come in handy for Hindus who wish to tell the Replacement Theologies which keep rewriting the history of the south (in order to write out Hinduism from it and write themselves in) that the Hindu Dharmic Religion - aka "Vedic Religion", usw - is the ancestral religion of the natives of the south. It's also handy in enlightening Hindus from more distant parts of the subcontinent about how Tamizh Hindus [and TN for that matter] were NOT "originally" (nor even ever significantly) Buddhist/Jain/ur-Shramanic/Dravoodian-religion/what-have-you type nonsense, despite all the relentless propaganda these days. While the article speaks largely about Hindus of the Tamizh regions of the subcontinent, the history follows largely the same pattern for all of the south of the country. And indeed, for all of the regions of the subcontinent: Hindus' religion/the Sanatana Dharma *is* the ancestral religion of the natives of the subcontinent, after all. (And this would be, I think, at least part of the reason why IIRC that old Japanese scholar identified Shintoism with Hinduism - and in direct distinction from Buddhism. Oh, but I forget, I haven't put that cute little statement up yet.) Removing The Sheen From Buddhism - Husky - 05-10-2013 Set of posts go here because they're about how history keeps becoming controversial. The first post is very loosely related to the next two so it also goes here. Might repost (free of my comments) in a more relevant thread, if I can find one and remember to. Post 1/3 [color="#0000FF"]This is not the important post. The next one is.[/color] But the following item is posted partly because the linked article by "Johnson" mentions something about "Pure Tamil" which in typically-christist parlance has the connotation of "Tzh With No Skt=no Skt influences". The reason why that is an impossible statement to make - at least based on available evidence - is what the *next*, more important, post is about. (I.e. show me a time, but provide documentation, outside of the modern dravoodian purges of course, when there was *no* Skt influence on/connection to Tzh. Note that even one Tzh word with known Skt connection is sufficient to disprove the existence of a "Pure Tamizh" for that entire historical period.) rajeev2004.blogspot.co.uk/2013/05/what-strange-piece-on-dravidian.html Quote:Wednesday, May 08, 2013 The "kannada gent" seems to refer to the "Johnson" character who wrote the original article. That makes it a christoconvert. And *that* explains the moronisms of the article being referred to. But Rajeev is dismissing Hindi unfairly. Bollywho's so-called "Hindi" may be turning more and more Urdu everyday (it certainly sounds uncouth enough to make me think it can't be Hindi), and bollywho's insipid audiences may be starting to speak less Hindi and more Urdu in connection with this (whether it's a cause or effect I don't know: "are they insipid *because* they watch Bollywho, or is a natural insipidity causing them to watch it?"), but that doesn't make Hindi itself "essentially Urdu" the way Rajeev claims. What absurdity. It is Urdu that was concocted as a mixture of -NOTE- pre-existing Hindi with dollops of Persian and Arabic. As opposed to Hindi being a supposed "offshoot" of Urdu or even forming a "syncretism" with Urdu. Urdu's existence is dependent on Hindi, not the other way around. Hindi could have done entirely without Urdu, and gone on developing naturally without Urdu's unnatural interference. While the widely-heard Hindi does have a tendency to lop off the inherent vowel in Skt consonants, especially on endings, only bad logic could force the conclusion that this makes Hindi itself "essentially Urdu". Quote:eg bhim for bhima. this sounds very rough to a sanskrit (or south indian language) speaker. It sounds abrupt. Indeed, it sounds wrong to Hindus not used to hearing this, because the original Bhima is a Skt name. BUT, Bhim IS a valid form in *Hindi*, as far as I understand. I don't know that it is the *only* form of pronouncing it in Hindi, and I suspect that "Bhima" may still be - or, at least, may once have been - a valid pronunciation of the name in Hindi (while it remains the only correct pronunciation in Skt). Perhaps the earliest Hindi dialects pronounced it as "Bhima"? Still, you don't need Urdu to explain why Bhima may have become Bhim in Hindi. It could just be a natural process of simplification, the way Skt tended to get simplified into various Prakrits, including Hindi. You don't see Hindus taking offence (or at least I hope not) that Tamizh Hindus at times may refer to "Sudarshanam" for Sudarshana, the way any number of Hindi speakers may refer to the same as Sudarshan. Sure yes, Sudarshana is the original Skt name. But Sudarshanam and Sudarshan are the valid local variants of it, and my money's on him answering to all three. I'm not sure how to construe this sentence though: Quote:southern languages have 1-1 correspondence with devanagari (*not* with hindi). He appears to be comparing languages with a script...? That makes the statement confusing. Because: - If he meant that the southern languages have no *full* correspondence with Hindi, well, they don't have full correspondence with each other either or with Skt. There are sounds in Tzh that don't exist in Telugu, Kannada and Skt (and at least one Tzh sound is deprecated in Malayalam. The Malayalam script at least is a superset covering both Skt and Tzh sounds: i.e. the traditional unmodified Malayalam script - perhaps uniquely - can represent all the sounds in both Tzh and Skt. DevanAgarI has been expanded artificially - for data representation purposes, not for natural usage - to allow it to represent sounds unique to southern Indian languages, but that's using the dot to extend the character set, and the resulting compound characters don't appear to be traditionally in use in devanAgarI.) All southern languages have 2 additional hrasvas not in Skt (but which yet exist in every European language I'm familiar with). - If he meant that you can write the southern languages in devanAgarI, you can equally write Hindi in devanAgarI (well, obviously). Rajeev can't have meant that devanaagari is *more* suitable for representing southern languages than it's suitable for representing Hindi - even *had* he also intended to imply alongside that southern languages have a 1-1 correspondence with Samskritam - because devanAgarI can represent Hindi completely and, with the extension feature, can therefore represent Southern languages completely too. And despite (some) Hindi speakers not voicing the inherent vowel in some parts of some words, I am sure that when reading through the basic akSharas they would voice it: that is, they wouldn't be saying "k, kh", but would say it with the vowel. This shows they *know* the vowel is present there by default. It's just that (some dialects?) of Hindi may not always make pedantic use of the same in actual words of speech. - If he meant that the southern languages have significant correspondence with Samskritam (i.e. all the akSharas of Skt), then Hindi does too. Perhaps the La is depecrated in some northern tongues, whereas it is actually a key sound of Tamizh at least (and gets as good a workout as in the Rig). But then, most native languages miss out on many sounds of Skt: the R^I, L^i, L^I type vowels don't get used as much in any of them I imagine. Then again, Skt doesn't appear to use L^I for many words at all, I could be wrong, and even R^I isn't the most common vowel. So if he had intended to say that the sounds of southern languages can't be respresented fully in Hindi ("but they can in Skt"), well much of the Tamizh language can fairly be represented by Hindi sounds. Not all, admittedly, but then, the same is true for Skt. In fact, I could argue with reason that the sounds of spoken Hindi give a decent coverage of the sounds in Tamizh: Hindi has all the varga sounds that are made in sounding Tzh (Tzh script may not distinguish between d and t etc, and between k and g etc, and at times even between ch and s/sh, but spoken Tzh does mostly: at least we can hear the difference between when someone says a ka or a ga and the like, even if sometimes people choose to interchange them. And unlike some French people, Tamizh Hindus can easily say the "ha", but we sometimes choose to write and even say ga or ka instead). Next, while Tzh doesn't have mahaapraaNas (either in script or pronunciation) - unlike Kannada, Telugu, Malayalam and Skt, where I still hear native speakers faithfully pronounce things correctly - Hindi speakers seem to be more lax/relaxed with mahapraaNas: to my ear, I hear them say "dukka" rather than what's written. And that's *exactly* what Tamizh Hindus say (except if they were pronouncing Skt, of course, in which case they'd say what's written). The difference is that in Tzh you also *spell* it that way. Not surprising, both being prakrit (lowercase p). So in some respects, Hindi speakers are a lot like Tamizh speakers. In other (many) respects, Malayalam speakers are a lot like Tamizh speakers. And sometimes Tamizhs do the v -> b thing that the Bengalis do. Etc. A sidenote: one entire varga sets all the many official Indian languages as a group apart from all the European languages I've ever heard: (W) Europeans don't make *those* sounds. Not even by accident. Also the usage of "devanAgarI" in Rajeev's statement seems misleading. It is after all only one of numerous scripts for representing Skt (and not even the earliest one among those still in use at present). + Kashmiris, Punjabis and other Hindus, I think upto Afghanistan, used their SiddhamAtrika aka Sharada script for Skt - named after Saraswati again - from which the more recent Gurmukhi script was derived (if you can read Siddhamaatrika, it looks to me like you can easily read Gurmukhi, it seems that similar to my otherwise untrained eye). Kashmiri Hindus still use Sharada for Skt. + Tamizh [and also Malayali] Hindus have a special and ancient script for Skt, though Malayalis on first glance don't need it as much as the Tamizh Hindus do, as the Malayalam script perfectly suffices for Skt AND all the southern languages. However, this Skt-specific script has support for Veda notation from the ground up, which is why I think Malayali Hindus use it for Vedic Skt too. I prefer to read Skt either in this script or devanAgarI (and Tzh in Tzh script of course), rather than itrans which I don't seem to compute too well. An extended character set version of the script - historically in use, hence not artificial/not invented for modern data representation - supports both Tamizh and Skt. + Balinese Hindus use their Akshara Bali which appears to have most everything in Skt - it certainly covers all the akSharas - and further looks to my ignorant eye like it even supports in-built veda marks. Curiously, the Bali Hindus' OM looks like it's composed of their number 3 (which is also their o) combined with their chandrabindu. The number 3 I suppose stands for the Trimoorti then, which would be appropriate. The Sadaashiva/shivalingam is after all composed of the Trimoorti + nAdabindu represented by the chandrabindu. Or something approximately like that. You know what I mean, it's described in our Stuff. <- Ooh, great use of the word Stuff there. ![]() Removing The Sheen From Buddhism - Husky - 05-10-2013 Post 2/3 2 items. Related. On what's a fascinating topic IMO, but one which is marred by that death of all accurate Indian history telling: deliberate controversy. My comments are inserted in purple. 1. hindu.com/2004/05/26/stories/2004052602871200.htm Quote:Wednesday, May 26, 2004 Removing The Sheen From Buddhism - Husky - 05-10-2013 Post 3/3 2. thehindu.com/news/states/tamil-nadu/article2408091.ece Quote:Palani excavation triggers fresh debate So, the oldest (in terms of confirmed date) legibly written word found in TN - and it predates Sangam, going by how Sangam works are *currently* dated (though the statement in the 1st news piece that the Tamizh Brahmi finds from possibly-7th/8th century BCE could therefore be from "probably earlier than the Sangam period" - again: so the confirmed-oldest legibly written word found in TN is a Tamizh word with definite connections to Samskritam? Brilliant. Yes no wonder Mohadevan etc can't allow it. Sure, in itself it doesn't reveal anything much about the origin of Tamil Brahmi: was it developed locally or shared from/shared among another part of the country? (Clearly Tamizh is at that point in contact already with Skt, so can't rule out that it was shared, but can't make out the direction of sharing either.) But finding the word Vaira around 500 BCE in TN says something about the chase for "Pure Tamizh": that it's still on. Because the oldest Tamizh word found certainly isn't the so-called "Pure Tamizh" of wackypedia that the christist Johnson brought up. So where's the "Pure Tamizh"? Go back as far as you will in the record, and we *still* haven't got past the close - and, by 500 BCE already, well-established - connection with Samskritam. After reading the first news item above, Hindus could wait years and years for more news on the subject: the news that was promised the readers was to be about the further investigation that would confirm/deny whether the dates for the first find really were 7th/8th centuries BCE. Of course nothing much has turned up, not much for public consumption anyway. It's a touchy subject after all. (Perhaps the christians and neo-Buddhists, currently mangling Indian archaeology in favour of their agendas, jumped onto the scene too as they have elsewhere in the state? And joined the dravoodianists already busy on the subject.) Because if I've learnt one thing on the matter of Indian history it is this: *everything* is made controversial. In fact, not just Indian history. The Indian present too. Indian scripts even. Dravoodianists and their western handlers were all sour about letting the script that Tamizh Hindus use for Skt get the Unicode treatment. The Unicode consortium doesn't seem to be the sort to be made up of ideological/political nutcases, so maybe the Dravoodianism-peddling gang had no influence on them? Leastways, hope not. (But Hindus appear to still be waiting for Unicode to come through on the matter.) In any case, when there were gangs a-stir for even *that*, imagine the controversial nature of any Brahmi finds - in India a.o.t. SL, in TN moreover - that predate not just Asoka but Buddhism (and possibly Jainism too, depending on the outcome of the discoveries in the news item of the previous post). You can see how the matter doesn't even enter into the heads of the more sensible people quoted in the news items: they are still only debating about the "controversiality" of the finds being pre-Asokan and Tamil Brahmi. Not about what this means in terms of Buddhism etc, the way the brain of everyone scrambling to claim the script for Buddhism etc works. Because, as long as the only finds discovered were "Asokan Brahmi", Buddhism was happy to claim Brahmi. At the very least, they would claim this as Buddhism being the [first] one to peddle it in India and propagate proper Indic writing (because the west - ah yes the west - did not allow Brahmi to even be Indian, as everyone knows, but I'll get back to this for another reason). Jainism invented one or two origin theories: 1. IIRC some female Jaina character has the name Brahmi and was rather loosely associated with the origin of the script via a light mythological motif, in order to claim it for Jainism. Whether she was invented for the purpose or the purpose got attached to her, don't know. (But either way, in that case, brAhmI is certainly an ancient Hindu Goddess name too, nah: brAhmI=Saraswati as all Hindus know, plus the word itself is *Skt*, being specifically the female variant for BrahmA, not to mention that Saraswati is the mother of/identical to the akSharas of Skt as well as of the many Indian languages which all share the same askSharas.) 2. as people may know, the Jains assigned a teerthankara as having given rise to writing (all writing) in the world (plus also conveniently all the 64 kalaas which were first enumerated by - and directly associated with - *Hindu* religion, BTW). So that means they claimed the Chinese script too, backwards in time and entirely ignorant about the existence of the Chinese and countless other ancient scripts around the globe. Nice one. The 2nd story says nothing particular about Brahmi however, but just about general writing and about all the till-then 64 *Hindu* kalaas. Both stories are the most vague and non-commital ever, and yet they are offered up as "proof" via "seed of origin theory", though no one - as far as I can work out - appears to have tried to peddle them publicly, until the more recent finds that started indicating the ancientry of the script within India, when there appears to have started yet another scramble for a piece of Indian history - this time to claim originating writing. (Sort of like the scramble in India to make gradual ideological claims on the IVC after its first discovery.) But theologies aside, and to get back to the point: as long as the only finds were still "Asokan Brahmi", in India at least, Buddhism was informally advertised as the driving (even gestational) force behind [all Indian] Brahmi. Where that failed, Jainism would do in a pinch, though promoters of "Either way, it was anything but Hindu" were less comfortable with appealing to Jain theology for proof: at least Asoka was known for tangible edicts that were (until more recently) the oldest evidence of the use of Brahmi in India and the subcontinent. So then, by that same logic that they used to pounce on Brahmi (or even "The Origin of Indian Writing"), when Brahmi finds predate Buddhism (and even Jainsm), Hindus are surely allowed to claim Brahmi, no? The answer - and every Hindu knows this - is No. It will be secular onlee. If it is found in Dravoodistan - i.e. the territory earmarked by the Dravoodians for themselves, specifically as being "not Hindu originally" - then it will be declared dravoodian onlee (except the very word discovered is "Vaira" which is a Tzh word that has undeniable ties to Skt.*) However, since the 490 BCE find is obviously not tied to dravoodianism, but shows such undeniable connections with :gulp: Skt, the answer is (you guessed it): the IVC. The "IVC" - contrary to Hindus appealing to it for their indigenousness - is now actually turning into a catch-all "Not Hindu" clause. It's being connected to the concocted ur-Shramanism. If ur-Shramanists were to be compared to the Indo-Europeans, then IVC is like to ur-Shramanism what the urheimat is to the "original Indo-Europeans". Whenever anything can't be donated to Buddhism & Jainism proper, it is declared "IVC" connoting ur-Shramanist. This places it beyond Hindus' reach you see. "Yes but", say the Hindus, "What about the Pashupati seal? That's so obviously a Shiva? Doing Yoga. And the Mahishasuramardini etc?" But haven't you heard, it's now to have been some Teerthankara. Magically, backwards in time, with all the features of Shiva, backwards in time. And have you never come across some - not looney-fringe but more mainstream - Jains declaring that 'Shivalingas are actually Hindus worshipping Kailasa which is the home of a Teerthankara'? (Meru and Kailasa and even several Hindu Gods having been magically copied into the other Indian religions from Hindu religion. But in order to claim originality, they then then have to resort to claiming Hindus copied *them*.) And of course Yoga is declared ur-Shramanist onlee and hence "Jain (& Buddhist) originally" but not ever - oh anything but that - Vedic. So no, no use pointing at the Pashupati I mean teerthankara seal etc. In a way the ur-Shramanism theory is more foolproof - less dependent on actual evidence - than even PIE and AIT. It's the other half of PIE actually... Where PIE/AIT tells the story about the Oryan invaders, the "ur-Shramanism of the IVC" (ur-Shramanism has become equated with the IVC) conveniently fills in the story about the "original inhabitants" (who further got oppressed/disenfranchised/more sobstories invented backwards in time). [* BTW, even if definitely and distinctly Prakrit words *were* to be found in these early time ranges, Prakrits are not peculiarly owned by Buddhism and Jainism, not even the 2 specific types of Prakrits they ended up primarily employing (being Pali and Ardha-Magadhi): Prakrits were merely the state of the popular languages in the parts of India including when & where Buddhism and Jainism arose and developed. *As a consequence* - and only as a consequence - to their [specific Prakrits'] then-current existence, they became the languages used and later promoted by the two respective religions. It doesn't say they weren't equally Hindu: since the then pre-existing society clearly used Prakrits.] And the final point, then: - For a long time, the ancestral Brahmi script (the "one script" from which the Tamil Brahmi, Asokan Brahmi and the Brahmi that the Siddhamatrika derived from, and all other Brahmis) was declared to NOT be Indian in origin but influenced by Phoenician script. I.e. had there been no Phoenician script, Indians would never have been able to develop their Brahmi since it was supposedly based off it, so we were told. And it was a story that stuck hard and fast. Only a small part of the excuse was that Vedic Hindus, being Vedic, had no need for writing (hence reading) and therefore wouldn't invent writing. Despite Phoenician being the primary argument, a part of the thrust was to deny Hindus the ability to come up with a script. Sort of like denying that Skt could be, let alone is, native to Hindus. - Now (somewhere under the last decade, this being as far as I have noticed), even *western* sites discussing languages and scripts have this to say about Brahmi: that there are two plausible theories as to its origin. External Phoenician again, being theory 1. And, after admitting that there are now more ancient finds of the script in India (implying earlier local development), there comes the magic word: "IVC". (That the origin of Indian writing - leading to Brahmi and its descendants - had indigenously developed after all, since the dawn of known Indian civilisation, equated with the IVC) There you have it, then: So even when the script (its origins) is at last allowed to become native to the land, they have only allowed it *because* they know sufficient theories have now been advanced concerning the IVC so as to disallow the Hindus access to it. :grin: Apparently it's inconceivable for a bunch of people possessed of a marvellously-grammatically sensible spoken language with near mathematical properties to ever conceive of coming up with a writing system. I'm surprised that Buddhism & Jainism haven't lobbied to have more accurate dating done for their founders, the 2 confirmed-historical founders I mean. But then, since every major milestone in ancient Indian history, at least prior to Alexander, was assigned arbitrarily (but relative to the previous ones at that hazier point in time), wouldn't that push everything earlier somewhat further back in time? Like the Itihasas all the way right up the chain to the Vedas? I doubt the west and the state of "Indian history" as it is studied there would allow that. Anyway, it's amazing how Hindus get dismissed out of hand. But it is deliberate, of course. Hindus are not allowed to exist in the present (e.g. aparently the recent report by the USCIRF -sp?-, on the various religious communities persecuted by islam in TSP-E & W, deliberately makes no mention of Hindus, though they're the majority victims). And Hindus are gradually erased from history too. Removing The Sheen From Buddhism - Husky - 05-12-2013 Already went on too long about it, but still, some further things to expand on, so I can -hopefully- feel completely done with this topic. Quote:The Asokan-Brahmi is dated to 250 BCE. Megasthenes, the Greek Ambassador to the court of Chandragupta Maurya, Emperor Asoka's grandfather, had stated that the people of Chandragupta Maurya's kingdom did not know how to write and that they depended on memory. Besides, there is no inscription of the pre-Asoka period available. Mr. Mahadevan said: ââ¬ÅSupposing a large number of carbon-datings are available from various sites, which will take us to the period of the Mauryas and even the Nandas, we can consider. But to push [the date of the origin of the Tamil-Brahmi script] a couple of centuries earlier with a single carbon-dating is not acceptable because chances of contamination and error are there.ââ¬Â Chindu's introduction to Mohadevan's statement seems to imply that he wishes to insist that Tamil Brahmi must somehow be a Mauryan-derived product or related back to it. Such an expectation is unnecessary. It's faulty logic. Even if we allow for Megasthenes being accurate concerning this detail and assuming the statement attributed to him is correctly presented, his statement only says something about Writing not being known in the *Mauryan* kingdom, which was certainly not all of old Bharatam. That leaves it open, by the time Ashoka rolled along, for the latter's kingdom to finally have learnt to import Brahmi from elsewhere in the country. The story would still fit. Naturally, Ashoka and his context would get less of the credit, of course - as 490 BCE for Tamizh Brahmi predates Ashokan Brahmi. As there's no evidence of Buddhism entering into TN/the south of the subcontinent at that early time, it takes away the link to Buddhism that was assumed by the presence of Asokan Brahmi as being the earliest Brahmi. (This was only originally a working assumption anyway, it's just that the idea has become entrenched.) However, eager Buddhism-peddlers hope to reinterpret such finds exactly as that, that is, as being earlier proof of Buddhism in the south, by inverting what the find guaranteeably means. I.e. they insist that the [only] conclusion to be drawn from these developments is that Buddhism "must have" arrived in the south earlier than so far supposed, even though there's no evidence of *Buddhism* in TN at 490 BCE and before, nor even as far as I'm aware for it setting off for the south at that time. <- There is moreover an ideological need among SL Buddhists to launch this theory concerning the finds in their own backyard, as otherwise the matter becomes especially controversial for them from their POV. Which is also why every [pre-Ashokan] Brahmi find in SL that is called "Tamizh Brahmi" is immediately contested for its being dubbed "Tamil" at all, although whether it's Tamil Brahmi or not is actually a secondary issue to the larger revelation of pre-Ashokan Brahmi (pre-Ashokan by quite a number of centuries possibly). Note: a tie between Brahmi and Buddhism/Jainism has not been established, not even one between Brahmi and Prakrits. And, as briefly mentioned before, there is factually no absolute connection to even be made between Buddhism/Jainism and Prakritas - i.e. can't find something ancient written in Prakrit in North India and leap to the conclusion that "only some Buddhist or Jain could have made it" without the text indicating that it's Buddhist/Jain in intention - since Prakrits were pre-existing dialects and languages spoken by a decent majority of inhabitants of a certain region of India within a certain time frame of the subcontinent's history. These inhabitants were by no means exclusively Buddhists and Jains, which last were only starting out when these languages were predominant in their locus of origin (there's no evidence the two then-new religions invented the Prakritas, and indeed, there's every indication they *didn't* invent them), and who moreover would definitely have been small in number when their respective groups did first start out. Just like Hindi or Tamizh or other local language literature does not imply that Hindus could not have written any old literature existing in these languages (as is nevertheless frequently assumed because of the ridiculous imputation that Sanskrit is suposedly the only language Hindus were to have been interested in employing). After all, historically there were Hindus of each region writing in both Skt and the local language(s). Likewise, the use of Prakrits was not [remotely] restricted to non-Hindus, as Hindus could and did easily employ both Skt and Prakrits where necessary. Certainly Hindu society/the laity in most places has been seen historically using the local languages in everyday life. To add to this statement: Quote:VAIRA(M) - e.g. vaira toDu - which is the *TAMIZH* WORD for diamond DIRECTLY ASSOCIATED WITH THE SKT WORD Vajra for diamond. There's no actual reason to insist it "must" be a Prakrit (capital P) word as Mohadevan presumes, as Skt Vajra naturally/prakritically (small p) turns to Vaira in Tamizh without external help. Because it's exactly how Tamilisation of such Skt words works too. "Because it's exactly how Tamilisation of such Skt words works too." And it does so independent of Prakrit presence or mediation. The old example: just like Agastiyar => Agattiyar is a change Tamizh itself makes. Yet this last is sort of close to how Prakrit would change the word, too. That's why the usual silly arguments of "Shaastaa => Satta *must* be owing to Pali" are flawed: because that's exactly how Tamizh would naturally change it, not just Pali or some other Prakrit. Because there exist certain 'common' ways - or common to Indian populations, that is - of simplifying/localising Skt, and so that's how many regional languages even if not all could and would have simplified/localised it. Like I brought up a few posts earlier: many of today's Hindi speakers often say "dukka" when speaking Hindi casually, even though most of these know quite well how to pronounce this originally-Skt word the Skt way when reciting *Skt*. But "dukka" is exactly how Tamizh Hindus would *also* say the word if they were to voice it out casually, such as when coming across the word for the first time and/or if having only a passing familiarity with Skt. I.e. dukka is the natural Tamizh way of pronouncing the word and so also happens to be the way the Skt word in Skt stotras gets transliterated into unmodified Tamizh script. So both Hindi and Tamizh are "prakritising" the same Skt-origin word along similar and expected lines, but without Hindi speakers having had to influence Tamizh Hindus in this, or vice-versa. Not all possible simplifications made by Indians are the same of course, but some tend to be noticeably so. The point: Skt vajra into Tzh vayra is *quite* how Tamizh changes the word into Tzh naturally without the need for introducing extra variables and intermediaries like Prakrits, nor for claiming that it "can and must only" represent a Prakrita word. Quote:Anyway, it's amazing how Hindus get dismissed out of hand. From everything. As seen in the many weird imputations/predicates invented against them and passed about as fact: "Predicate: Hindus had no interest in writing Tamizh works, because their only interest must have been to write in Sanskrit alone. Hence all old Tamizh works are Jain/Buddhist/not Hindu". "Predicate: Vedic religion can't have known ascetism. So Yoga to Vedaanta are actually Ur-Shramanic in origin or at least influence." "Predicate: Vedic Religion is Oryan/Alien AND Vedic Religion is the only Oryan/Alien. IVC is native, therefore IVC is non-Vedic=ur-Shramanic/Jain[/Buddhist theology]." "Predicate: Hindus could not have come up with writing, they had no need for writing. They must have only cared about divine parrotting.* Therefore writing and Brahmi must be Buddhist/Jain/ur-Shramanic again". * Yet, at most/even at its worst, this accusation can only be directed at Vedabrahmanas and not at the rest of Vedic=Hindu society: no one else is expected to divine-parrot from the Vedas 24/7 - even where these do carry out or take part in Vedic rites. That is, the rest of Hindu society are at least known to have other work/professions/daily life to get back to. And even were it true - but it isn't - that that's indeed all *brahmanas* were concerned with (though actually, it's been a stipulation for brahmanas to devise and preserve Hindu sciences, skills and arts, by learning these and teaching them to Hindu society), still, every other type of Hindu from the king to your everyday householder certainly does have uses for writing at work and in daily life and is well-capable of seeing a need for it and seeking to devise it. Clearly writing could be of great use for everything from royal decrees to ledgers and manuals and to-do lists, novels/poetry to love-letters. But then, that's where it comes in handy yet again to de-recognise the existence of the Hindu laity (all of Hindu society actually), you see: so any deficiencies that can be exagerrated and stereotyped onto brahmanas - such as their alleged disinterest in writing - must now become the shared lot for every other type of Hindu, who were first made invisible under the ridiculously false "There's no such thing as Hindu laity" rule and next have to suffer mass self-enforced illiteracy by assocation - i.e. for being Vedic Hindus like Veda brahmanas are. It's beyond daft. I can't believe people don't complain. Removing The Sheen From Buddhism - Husky - 05-24-2013 1/2 1. Still on ^that topic. sites.google.com/site/brahmiscript/ Quote:What is Brahmi? (Just to state the obvious, but it's worth doing and isn't mere pedantry: the statement that the "[Brahmi script-family] was probably already in use during Buddha's lifetime" should actually be phrased as "[Brahmi script-family] was probably already in use before Buddha's lifetime". The latter is more accurate - as a description of the same (class of) data they base their statement on - and is inclusive of the former.) It's a curious thing that it's long been general knowledge - as even seen in the Encarta extracts on Buddha/Buddhism posted on this or last page of the thread - that [color="#0000FF"]the early Buddhist development of the Buddhist canon was not written down and was consciously maintained as an oral tradition (even for some time after it became more formalised/fixed), and yet Buddhism has frequently been credited - directly else indirectly - with having been the architect of Brahmi in the subcontinent, even if not always in the world, all because of the attested existence and employ of "Asokan Brahmi". Meanwhile ancient Vedic society (i.e. Hindus) - who only held that their *Vedic* rites/recitations were for performing and not for writing down - are considered forever mutually exclusive from being able to develop a writing system. And they are particularly rounded out to be censured in this for what's to all intents and purposes the same crime: for considering religious stuff not matter for writing down, but just meant for oral transmission instead (as well as oral/active performance in the Hindu case). And this biased assumption continues *even* after Brahmi in India is shown to predate Buddhism - and practically Jainism.[/color] A strange partiality is always apparent in the two different treatments meted out. Essentially the enforced assumption is that Vedic society *could* not (and basta); whereas Buddhism etc surely *could* but chose not to "until later". 2. Speaking of oral traditions entering writing. Briefly, but not a smallish matter, though it now seems to be no more than a footnote to Others' history. People probably know, but this is for those that don't: [color="#0000FF"]The Tibetan ââ¬ÅBook of the Dead" is the name given to more than one collection.[/color] What's important is that, despite the title being impressed in the popular mind as "Buddhist", the original work that goes by the name is Bon. I.e. there's [color="#0000FF"]the Bon Book of the Dead[/color], based off an oral Bon tradition of unknown age (concerning their sacred death-related rites, as far as my poor understanding goes), which the Bon heathens eventually wrote down. [color="#0000FF"]And several centuries after this - after the Bon literature of this name was finally written down - Buddhists bauddhified the Bon original to produce the "Buddhist" version[/color], such plagiarism being a practice that usually goes hand-in-hand with the attempt by missionary religions at trying to extinguish the native religion (as is precisely what happened in Tibet, BTW). So, even as the Buddhists there were actively trying to wipe out Tibet's native Bon religion, they were not above stealing/inculturating (whatever you want to call it) on Bon sacred religious works on Ritual Practices. [color="#0000FF"]Apparently the two works are quite alike that with the usual difference owing to typical Bauddhification: Bon Gods replaced by Buddhist placeholders (Buddhist characters if not the Bauddhified Gods of Others), as well as Buddhisms - Buddhist justifications for/interpretations of stolen rites - being spouted here and there.[/color] [color="#0000FF"](So if anyone ever wondered why the Tibetan Book of the Dead is not present in other Bauddhified geographies, it's for the usual reason: because the so-called Buddhist Book of the Dead is hardly Buddhist, and is peculiarly Tibetan, being in fact Bon. Though perverted by the widely-applied process of bauddhification.)[/color] But hey, just 'cause Buddhism wasn't original in Tibet either - let alone "eternally true"- doesn't mean people should overlook such a grand accomplishment of plagiarism, another in a long line. Gee, where did I see that before? Oh yeah. The Bauddification of Shinto Ritual Practices. And of Taoist Ritual Practices. More excitingly for groupies, [color="#0000FF"]the alleged author of the celebrated Buddhist[/color] and more (internationally) popular work going by the name [color="#0000FF"]"Tibetan Book of the Dead"[/color] is one who's apparently famous for being a scourge of Bon religious beings: [color="#0000FF"]Padmasambhava[/color] (was that not his name?). So next to being credited with/fondly remembered for chasing off Bon beings/persons, he's also a famous Plagiarist, to put it secularly. [Though the actual crime is that Buddhism once more stole another religion's rituals/stuff and passes this of as Buddhist and forcefits it into Buddhist cosmology.] That makes *two* great achievements that Tibetan Buddhism crowned him with (though whether he was factually the plagiarist behind this particular work, or whether other, still later, Buddhists did the actual plagiarising and merely attributed it to his more famous and earlier personage, still seems to be somewhat of an uncertainty in academe). I guess that's the cue for the applause. But I'll sit this one out. Still, mustn't be too hard on Padmasambhava - after all, he's not even the least admirable among the most widely-respected Buddhists of yore. Besides, the Tibetan Bon Book of the Dead wasn't the only Bon thing Buddhism plagiarised/bauddhified, even while killing Bon off. Removing The Sheen From Buddhism - Husky - 05-24-2013 2/2 3. HK had an article on Bali Hinduism where some Indian swami (from somewhere in the Himalayas?) visiting Bali decided to commend the way the extant religions in Bali live in harmony. The relevant statement was this: Quote:In the year 1011 AD, at a place which is now known as Purasamantigaââ¬Â¦ there was the first interreligious conference of three religions: Shaiva Agama, Bauddha Agama and Baliyaga, the traditional pre-Buddhist, pre-Hindu, Balinese religion. The scholars and the leaders sat down and worked out a system by which the three religions should work together and exchange forms with each other and that is the religion of Bali today.(Buddhism plagiarised the word Agama from Hindus' religion too, as others had done. Eventualy they will invert the direction of travel of this too and declare Hindus copied the concept of Agamas from Buddhism/Jainism and that anything deemed "Agamic culture" must "therefore" be originally Jain/Buddhist instead. I shouldn't wonder. <- And if that sounded far fetched, it's nothing compared to the far more absurd claims getting peddled about, which forms a rather unpleasant topic that still needs to be posted on, because all the lying is becoming too much, especially as Hindus now have imbibed these claims and are peddling the same about ignorantly too. It's embarrassing. But that's for another day. Ugh. Yuck.) Anyway. I've not bothered (yet) to look at the history of Buddhism in Bali. But I do note that: * in Bali - where Buddhism failed to eclipse Hindu religion (compare with how Buddhism succeeded in overriding Hindu religion in most every other SE Asian nation) - the native Balinese religion survived. This is because of Hindu religion being a majority and not Buddhism. It's because Hinduism - like Greek and Daoist religion - co-exists with native religions and the native heathens merely expand their pantheons to include Greek/Daoist/Hindu Gods and practices (depending on the country in question). Everywhere else in SE Asia where Buddhism overtook Hindu religion, Buddhism merely wiped out pre-existing religion else bauddhified the remnants (it had already Bauddhified Hindu religion there). Quite like Tibet actually. * surely the fact that an interreligious conference on ââ¬Åworking togeetherââ¬Â was even necessary in Bali in 1011 CE implies that there must have been some religious strife that resulted in a need for such a meeting on such a topic in the first place? I wouldn't be surprised if it was owing to Buddhism encroaching on native Balinese religion. I mean, where were such conferences in Thailand or Cambodia (or Tibet) etc to preserve the native religions or even the pre-Buddhist Hindu religion? Buddhism lost in Bali to Hinduism and hence was no doubt ready to come to the table for a compromise that would allow it to survive in *any* capacity rather than none: it got to keep something, rather than walk away with nothing. (Whereas, where Buddhism won, it left barely anything untouched/unbauddhified of the Hindu religion that preceded it, nor a trace of the native religions of the converted geographies.) Despite the examples of other countries where Buddhism was victorious, one could argue my uneducated take on the "interreligious conference" amounts to no more than speculation (but then, why be so uneven-handed? others speculate with far less data and even less common-sense not to mention 0 logic). *But* the fact that, as most Indian Hindus would know, Bali consists of the 4 varnas of Vedic society and Buddhists clearly happily slinked in here under the special (oxymoronic and elsewhere non-existent) category "Buddhist Brahmins" shows that they were willing to settle for a good deal and were forced into a situation they donââ¬â¢t choose to get into when the odds are in their favour. I mean, most everywhere else they hissed at Brahmins, not to mention continue to project themselves as the bringers of a casteless egalitarian society, though some did that in early centuries too. (As a famous example of Buddhism hissing at Brahmins, even carrying this outside India for as far as it can travel: the earliest Buddhists that invaded I mean entered China left behind graffiti/"wall paintings" of Buddhist dawaganda - self-professedly fictitious - against Brahmanas. To this day, the Chinese - being innocent of this Buddhist concoction - have no idea how to read those wall paintings and merely carefully reproduce it in art work, without even knowing who the villains represent. The Chinese had remained clueless even when Buddhism later - briefly and unsuccessfully - tried to retell the same dawaganda fictions locally with IIRC *Daoist* priests as the main villains replacing the Hindu brahmanas. In Thailand however, centuries later when the Buddhist fable made its way here and is known as a sutra, Buddhists couldn't badmouth the Hindu class that crowned the king, and the villain is therefore made into some native unspecified but lay Indian instead. Sort of sounds like the evolving Thomas fable of christianism, except that Buddhists never pretended that their own fable had any historical truth. They merely intended it to be perceived by society as possessing allegorical "truth": not only as to the moral of Buddhist "compassion" etc, but - at one point in time - quite as much about who the good guys and who the bad guys of society were: who all are not to be trusted by "lay Indian society", a point quite lost on the Chinese. It was originally a missionising fable, a PR promotion for the "compassion of Buddhism" explicitly meant to be contrasted with the villains, the greed of wily brahmoons. It's one of many such Buddhist fables. Like I said, christianism didn't invent anti-brahminism. Or anti-Daoist-priesthood. Let alone anti-native-heathenism in general. It's a feature of all missionary religions. They compete with the status quo, with extant religion. There will be no takers unless people are brainwashed into dissatisfaction with the status quo. Hence the need for propaganda. For all too obvious reasons, I choose not mention the name of the primary fable mentioned above. Wouldn't want daft Buddhism-peddling loonies getting a whiff of it and then trying to pretend that the "Chinese of old disliked brahmins (or even Hindu religion) too". The fact is actually the opposite: no E Asian heathen - nor even SE Asian heathen as far as I'm aware - has registered any complaint about Hindu religion encroaching on their native religion. Whereas Chinese and Japanese had long documented Buddhist encroachment and attempts to wipe out their native religions and had long-standing fights with Buddhism. Not to mention that a specific subset of Japanese Shinto heathens exasperated Buddhism in not allowing Buddhism to confiscate said Shintos' so-called "brahminical" [=Buddhist word for Hindu] literature for bauddhification. But no amount of propaganda and sneaking and then threatening by the Buddhists would convince said Shintos, whose response remained that it was their duty to not let this powerful literature nor their own Shinto Ritual Practices fall into Buddhist hands and get Bauddified (and hence subverted). Clearly these Shintos knew Hindu religion to be anything but swindle - from practice. They rather knew enough about Buddhism to suspect foul-play on behalf of Buddhism (which eventually followed/was attempted, BTW, so it merely proved the Shintos right). Also, add to this the fact that even as late as the 1960s or so, there was still a remnant of this ongoing identification with Hindu religion among Shintos: when IIRC a Japanese scholar even declared, after stating the well known fact that Shinto was the pre-Buddhist religion of Japan (Shintos don't confuse their religion with Buddhism after all), that "Shintoism was brahminism". Though said scholar was -from memory- a student of advaitam (ooh, that gives me a lead on tracking down the quote), I still think he actually means Sanatana Dharma/Vedic religion, since "brahminism" is what Buddhism calls Hindu religion in E Asian countries. (It's also how Hindus' religion gets projected in India, in order to pretend there's no such thing as Hindu laity, and so that missionary religions can claim all the other Vedic varnas as "unaligned" to any religion and hence open to conversion.) To be fair, Buddhism doesn't just do this to brahmanas but also attempted this against the priesthoods of Daoists and against the preservers of Shinto religion, and other such cases. It's a feature of missionary religion: they try to convert the heathen priestly classes first; and whenever they fail, they get angry and try to console themselves with trying to convert the rest of the populace next and do so by badmouthing the priestly classes and by projecting the native religion as an unnatural edifice of the priests and the priests alone. But heathenism, not being a missionary religion, is by definition the [native, ethnic] religion of all of heathen society. Removing The Sheen From Buddhism - Husky - 05-25-2013 Post 1/? Successive posts concern the following excerpts from Wacky pages. The topic's important because various unfounded statements are now being parroted blindly on *Hindu* sites. They don't even bother to substantiate things for themselves first before trying to sell it off to their Hindu audience. 1. Wacky history of Rishabha page: en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?&title=Rishabha&diff=556147431&oldid=522685544 Quote:Vedas mention 22 Jain Tirthankaras. Hindu sites continue to parrot the above as fact (google the above alleged RV statement and you may still see evidence of Hindu sites advertising it), even though the wacky page has instead been changed to the following conveniently vague-er statement (claims they don't feel the need to reference at all now): Quote:There is mention of Rishabha in Hindu scriptures. He finds some references in Veda. However, its meaning is not clear and has different interpretations. 2. The following on the Neminatha wacky page is relevant to Hindus. It's apparently not enough that Hindu wacky pages (e.g. on Patanjali/Yoga sutras, on Upanishads, on Hindu cave temples, on Hindu persons for example) get vandalised by not just neo-Buddhists and get the glorious Bauddhification/Jainisation treatment, but Hindu religion (and even history) has to get dragged into pages on other Indic religions and mangled to provide the "proof of historicity" so sorely lacking in those other Indic religions themselves. The 2nd case in point then: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Neminatha Quote:...There's more weird stuff going on in the above 2 wackypedia pages. But for now leaving it at that. The stream of posts to follow is going to be about what the Hindu texts being referred to above - like the Rig Veda, Harivamsha, Chandogya Upanishad - have to say for themselves about these things. Removing The Sheen From Buddhism - Husky - 05-25-2013 Post 2/? Am pasting from the Monier-Williamws (MW) Skt dictionary in that it is useful in this matter: the MW lists the source/use of Skt words as well as the approximate meanings (in said sources). The following gives a summary of what these two words meant/who they referred to in the various contexts of their uses: Quote:1. RSabha m. (fr. 2. %{RS} Un2. ii , 123) , a bull (as impregnating the flock ; cf. %{vRSabha} and %{ukSan}) RV. AV. VS. ChUp. BhP. &c. ; any male animal in general S3Br. ; the best or most excellent of any kind or race (cf. %{puruSarSabha} , &c.) MBh. R. &c. ; the second of the seven notes of the Hindu1 gamut (abbreviated into R2i) ; a kind of medicinal plant Sus3r. Bhpr. ; a particular antidote Sus3r. ii , 276 , 7 ; a particular Eka7ha (q.v.) Ka1tyS3r. ; the fifteenth Kalpa ; N. of several men ; of an ape ; of a Na1ga ; of a mountain ; of a Ti1rtha ; (%{As}) m. pl. the inhabitants of Kraun5ca-dvi1pa BhP. v , 20 , 22 ; N. of a people VarBr2S. ; (%{I}) f. a woman with masculine peculiarities (as with a beard &c.) L. ; a widow L. ; Carpopogon Pruriens Car. ; another plant L. ; [cf. Zd. {arSan} ; Gk. $.] Quote:1 ariSTanemi (%{a4riSTa-}) mfn. the felly of whose wheel is unhurt (N. of Ta1rkshya) RV. , (%{is}) m. N. of a man (named together with Ta1rkshya) VS. xv , 18 , (said to be the author of the hymn RV. x , 178) RAnukr. ; N. of various princes MBh. VP. ; of a Gandharva BhP. ; of the twenty-second of the twenty four Jaina Tirtham2karas of the present Avasarpin2i. This much becomes apparent even from the various meanings given in the entries: - can see how in Vedic Skt, which is the original source of these words, both RiShabha and ariShTanemi have a basic meaning ("bull" etc, and "the felly of whose wheel is unhurt", respectively), can be used as descriptives, as well as [consequently] being epithets/proper names of several Vedic personages. - can also note how in the, much later, Jain uses of these original Vedic Skt words, these become names for Jain characters. Characters distinct from the Vedic persons and epithets who since much earlier had possessed of/been referred to by these names and epithets. Can work out from this that Jain references to Jain teerthankaras called Rishabh(a) and Neminath(a) "aka the Jain Arishtanemi" are simply speaking of entirely different entities to what the Vedic Hindus (and Hindu works like the MBh~Harivamsha) spoke of. Moreover, the very Vedic texts - the very ones which use the Vedic meanings of R^ishabha and [edited typo] ariShTanemi to refer to Vedic persons or as Vedic descriptives - do not know of the Jain Teerthankaras that would later be given these names. (Same as how Vinayaka and Heramba were originally Hindu epithets/proper names for Ganapati and which names were later incorporated by Buddhism as epithets for Buddhism - which is an example already covered in an earlier post somewhere in this thread.) Further, the Vedic - i.e. original - meanings of the Vedic Skt words arhat, arhanta, arhasi, arhaNa and arha are apparently related, meaning: deserving/worthy, as well as worship and the like. (Being descriptives, they are therefore also famous personal names and epithets of the Hindu Gods: IIRC, arha is a name of Indra, arhanta is a name of Shiva.) And "deserving/worthy" and "worship" etc are the meanings in which this set of words - the ones prefixed above on arha* - is used in the Vedas. However, Jainism tries to retrofit Vedic references to words like "arhan/t" (like Buddhism nowadays does with other Hindu texts) as being a reference to the later Jain/Buddhist meaning of Arha(n)t - capital A for distinction. I.e. they choose to read it as being a reference ShramaNas (capital Sh). But that is beside the point, as the next few posts go through all the occurences of the words Rishabha, Arishtanemi and arha* in the Rig Veda Samhita (there aren't that many references) and so can make up one's own mind. Removing The Sheen From Buddhism - Husky - 05-25-2013 Post 3/? This and the next couple of posts are on the Rig Veda. Full quotes (with Griffith's translations) from the relevant passages from the R^ig will follow in the next post, but first the summary of the results from searching in the Rig (numbering is in Mandala form) : 1. In all the Rig Samhita, there are 4 occurences of R^iShabha: 6.16, 6.28, 10.91, 10.166. + The first 3 of these are all references to the animal called bull (including a subset of the bull). + The 4th reference uses that other Vedic meaning of Bull, which is a descriptive that's used as a superlative. The superlative descriptive use of the word is also seen in that YV (?) mantra on Indra as being "the Bull of the Chandas", where it meant that he it was who is the Dharma running through the entire Vedam, being the very Pranava Mantram that finds repeated invocation in the Vedam. 2. In all the Rig Samhita, there are 4 occurences of ariShTanemi: 1.89, 1.180, 3.53, 10.178. + All 4 are utterly unambiguous references to Tarkshya with ariShTanemi as his descriptive. + And not one of these references says anything even like the verse that the Jains have claimed was to be found in the Rig: Quote:So asmakam Aristanemi svaha Arhan vibharsi sayakani dhanvarhanistam yajatam visvarupam arhannidam dayase" (Astak 2, Varga 7, Rig Veda)That line isn't in the Rig. See also note 3. Note: The concordance of the Rig Samhita (the searchable index of the full text of all the shlokas in the RV Samhita) on which the searches were performed, lists in mandalas not ashtakams. So searching for the given reference by the numbering provided ("Astak 2, Varga 7, Rig Veda") was not possible. The division into aShTakas instead of maNDalas is more prevalent in the south it seems, but as the Shakala Shaka of the Rig is apparently the prominent southern version - which Shaka I think this concordance would certainly cover, since it was IIRC originally compiled by at least 1 southern Hindu in the team - searching for *all* occurrences of ariShTanemi in this concordance should cover all bases anyway. [color="#0000FF"]3. Also searched the Rig concordance for all occurrences of "arha", since it covers arha, arhas*, arhan* which includes arhant*, arhat*, arhaN*.[/color] (And I think the search's stemming capabilities covered an avagraha prefix. Certainly seemed to cover sandhis) Found some 20 uses of the search term rooted on "arha", plus 2 or so I wasn't too sure of (as to their relevance), but included them anyway in the search results in the next post. [color="#0000FF"]+ All are references in the original vedic meaning of arha(n/t/N)* as "deserving/worthy" or "worship" (and related).[/color] Contrary to the claims seen on the wacky page, there is no ambiguity as to their meaning, because it is mostly used as descriptives with direct reference to the Hindu God(s) being invoked in the mantras. + Again, not one of the search results remotely resembled the line that Jainism alleges as existing in the Rig: "So asmakam Aristanemi svaha Arhan vibharsi sayakani dhanvarhanistam yajatam visvarupam arhannidam dayase" (Astak 2, Varga 7, Rig Veda) No RV verse had the two words - ariShTanemi and arhan - together. Though it must be noted that even if one were ever to find such a line as is claimed (i.e. with both ariShTanemi and arha*) - in any part of the entire chaturvedam - it still will never be a reference to the Jain Neminatha: it will firmly remain a reference to the Vedic Hindus of that name, while arhan/t* variants would likewise remain Vedic words with Vedic meanings in the Vedas even when refererring to any person there by name ariShTanemi. (By simple logic: if arhan/t* can retain its Vedic meaning when referring to Agni et al - as it does - why should it suddenly acquire the late Jainist/Buddhist meaning of Arhan/t - capital A - when referring to the Vedic ariShTanemi?) [color="#0000FF"]EDITED:[/color] To include 3.53 reference Removing The Sheen From Buddhism - Husky - 05-25-2013 Post 4/? The included translations are credited to Ralph (?) Griffith of the British Imperial era. These translations aren't pasted here for accuracy to the Hindu POV, but because they were easily accessible for copying and pasting, and more importantly, because even Griffith's translations more than suffice to show that the words in question can't ever be *made* to have Jainist meanings in these shlokas: since the words used are direct descriptives of the Hindu Gods being addressed/invoked, or else refer to one type of animal in a list of animal species, etc. Will start with all references in the Rig Samhita to "ariShTanemi" and "arha*", and end with all its refs to "R^iShabha". (Shloka number from each Mandala also given below. There may be typoes in the Devanagari.) All (=not 3 but 4) occurrences of ariShTanemi in the Rig Veda Samhita (substring *riShTanem*) Quote:à ¤¸à ¤µà ¤¸à ¥Âà ¤¤à ¤¿ à ¤¨ à ¤â¡Ã ¤¨à ¥Âà ¤¦à ¥Âà ¤°à ¥⹠à ¤µà ¥Æà ¤¦à ¥Âà ¤§à ¤¶à ¥ÂÃ Â¤Â°Ã Â¤ÂµÃ Â¤Â¾Ã Â¤Æ Ã Â¤Â¸Ã Â¤ÂµÃ Â¤Â¸Ã Â¥Âà ¤¤à ¤¿ Ã Â¤Â¨Ã Â¤Æ Ã Â¤ÂªÃ Â¥Âà ¤·à ¤¾ à ¤µà ¤¿à ¤¶à ¥Âà ¤µà ¤µà ¥â¡Ã Â¤Â¦Ã Â¤Â¾Ã Â¤Æ Ã Â¥Â¤ Can note that in all three instances above, the word ariShTanemi seems to take on its literal meaning rather than as a full name. Even otherwise, (a) Tarkshya - alongside The GaruDa - is IIRC said to be brother to a well-known Vedic/Hindu ariShTanemi (in the Harivamsha, for instance). That means that even if it did refer to a separate person in the 4 RV entries above, the references still wouldn't have been to the Jain Neminatha. [color="#0000FF"]EDITED:[/color] To include the 3.53 reference Removing The Sheen From Buddhism - Husky - 05-25-2013 Post 5/? All occurrences of arha* in the Rig Veda Samhita - covers arha, arhas*, arhan* which includes arhant*, arhat*, arhaN*,... (substring *arha*) Quote:à ¤â¡Ã ¤®à ¤â à ¤¸à ¥Âà ¤¤à ¥â¹Ã ¤®à ¤®à ¤°à ¥Âà ¤¹à ¤¤à ¥⡠à ¤Åà ¤¾à ¤¤à ¤µà ¥â¡Ã ¤¦à ¤¸à ¥⡠à ¤°à ¤¥à ¤®à ¤¿à ¤µ à ¤¸à ¤â à ¤®à ¤¹à ¥â¡Ã ¤®à ¤¾ à ¤®à ¤¨à ¥â¬Ã ¤·à ¤¯à ¤¾ à ¥¤ |