06-04-2005, 12:59 AM
User "Anand Nair" on Sulekha..
<!--QuoteBegin-->QUOTE<!--QuoteEBegin--> Posted by Anand Nair on Jun 2, 2005
Sinhala,
Please visit http://www.bradshawfoundation.com/journey/ for a pictorial depiction of man's migratory history, based on Openheimer's DNA studies.
You miss some crucial aspects:-
1. Agriculture and animal domestication had not been accomplished by man ANYWHERE in the world till 10,000 years from the present times.
2. In South Asia (that is in the region of present day Pakistan and Afghanistan), farming was introduced for the first time only 6000 years back!
3. The above means that that the Vedic (agricultural) civilazation is LESS THAN 6000 years old. Before that we were hunter gathererers.
4. DNA studies (by Openheimer or any one else) have NOT revealed any genetic migration from India to Europe (or vice versa) in the last 10,000 years.
5. Thus it is clear that THERE IS NO GENETIC EVIDENCE that there was any migration of genes from India to Europe AFTER the emergence of the Vedic culture.
6. The currently accepted Aryan Migration (to India from Europe) theory is based on linguistic evidence that needs to be explained. That is, to explain the existence of Indo-Aryan languages in the North, and Dravidian languages in the South. This theory postulates this migration (cultural, if not genetic) to have occured ONLY within the last 6000 years.
7. The above is a working hypothesis to explain the linguitic evidence and has no political overtones. This is a hypothesis that can be easily falsified if contrary evidence comes up some time in the future.
8. As of now, such contrary evidence has NOT surfaced -- certainly not from genetic studies.
9. The grandiose idea of India being the "cradle of civilizations" is a political view point that is not based on any evidence. Why not Africa getting this honour? (There is genetic evidence for this). Farming & animal domestication first occured in the Fertile Crescent (present day Iraq, Syria), Mesoamerica and in North Africa. Why not regard these areas as the cradle of the agricultural civilization?
10. Are the proponents of the hypothesis of India being the cradle of civilization (what does it matter anyway?), ready to abandon their view point, if in future, evidence to the contrary surfaces?
Anand Nair<!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->
<!--QuoteBegin-->QUOTE<!--QuoteEBegin--> Posted by Anand Nair on Jun 2, 2005
Sinhala,
Please visit http://www.bradshawfoundation.com/journey/ for a pictorial depiction of man's migratory history, based on Openheimer's DNA studies.
You miss some crucial aspects:-
1. Agriculture and animal domestication had not been accomplished by man ANYWHERE in the world till 10,000 years from the present times.
2. In South Asia (that is in the region of present day Pakistan and Afghanistan), farming was introduced for the first time only 6000 years back!
3. The above means that that the Vedic (agricultural) civilazation is LESS THAN 6000 years old. Before that we were hunter gathererers.
4. DNA studies (by Openheimer or any one else) have NOT revealed any genetic migration from India to Europe (or vice versa) in the last 10,000 years.
5. Thus it is clear that THERE IS NO GENETIC EVIDENCE that there was any migration of genes from India to Europe AFTER the emergence of the Vedic culture.
6. The currently accepted Aryan Migration (to India from Europe) theory is based on linguistic evidence that needs to be explained. That is, to explain the existence of Indo-Aryan languages in the North, and Dravidian languages in the South. This theory postulates this migration (cultural, if not genetic) to have occured ONLY within the last 6000 years.
7. The above is a working hypothesis to explain the linguitic evidence and has no political overtones. This is a hypothesis that can be easily falsified if contrary evidence comes up some time in the future.
8. As of now, such contrary evidence has NOT surfaced -- certainly not from genetic studies.
9. The grandiose idea of India being the "cradle of civilizations" is a political view point that is not based on any evidence. Why not Africa getting this honour? (There is genetic evidence for this). Farming & animal domestication first occured in the Fertile Crescent (present day Iraq, Syria), Mesoamerica and in North Africa. Why not regard these areas as the cradle of the agricultural civilization?
10. Are the proponents of the hypothesis of India being the cradle of civilization (what does it matter anyway?), ready to abandon their view point, if in future, evidence to the contrary surfaces?
Anand Nair<!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->