This Nair was responding to my post as Sinhala:
<!--QuoteBegin-->QUOTE<!--QuoteEBegin-->>>1. Agriculture and animal domestication had not been accomplished by man ANYWHERE in the world till 10,000 years from the present times.<<<!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->
As i said to him earlier, emigration from India would have accelerated as India approached Neolithic and a catastrophic cultural shift as presupposed by AIT is inconceivable with the start of neolithic. Same can be said for the other major neolithic which is chinese.
<!--QuoteBegin-->QUOTE<!--QuoteEBegin-->>>>2. In South Asia (that is in the region of present day Pakistan and Afghanistan), farming was introduced for the first time only 6000 years back!<<<<!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->
This is a malicious lie. All archaeologists trace independent Neolithic development in SSVC down to Mehrgarh which is dated to 9000BP, by even the pakis. Oldest neolithic is taro horticulture in N. Guinea as pointed out by Oppenheimer in his first book. And if there was diffusion of the neolithic, then it must have been from east to west
<!--QuoteBegin-->QUOTE<!--QuoteEBegin-->>>>3. The above means that that the Vedic (agricultural) civilazation is LESS THAN 6000 years old. Before that we were hunter gathererers.>>><!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->
Even as hunter gatherers, India was a five steps ahead of rest of the backwater regions of asia. that is why here was so much emigration form india to regions north, etc, as proved by oppenheimer. there was footnote in deriyangala's book that archeologists in the Sri Lanka now test for silica on lithic tools since these were being used to "harvest cereals" at 17,000 BCE (horton plains). This book was taken taken offline as of yesterday and there is some german error signal in its place. Anyone can test an see that the link that i cited earlier to earlier has been disabled.
<!--QuoteBegin-->QUOTE<!--QuoteEBegin-->>>4. DNA studies (by Openheimer or any one else) have NOT revealed any genetic migration from India to Europe (or vice versa) in the last 10,000 years.>><!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->
Not true. Figure 1.3 on page 135 derives euro mtdna lines J and T1 from the Near East at dates a few thousand years after 10K BP. All these lines had originally come out of india. Also the route taken by gypsies into the balkan heartland for Europe is the prototype for indian migration via the Mideast conduit. Again, the value of Oppenheimer is the overarching pattern he proves for east to west transmission.
As i said to NAir on Sulekha:
"The fact remains that to explain the genetics of Indians, the presence of Europeans is inconsequential. However, to explain the genetics of Europeans, a profound Indian ancestry must be assumed."
<!--QuoteBegin-->QUOTE<!--QuoteEBegin-->>>>5. Thus it is clear that THERE IS NO GENETIC EVIDENCE that there was any migration of genes from India to Europe AFTER the emergence of the Vedic culture.<<<!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->
which, even if true ( and it certainly is not as shown in figure 1.3 ), is negated by the fact that there is plenty of textual and cultural evidence for Indic inundation of regions as far as the black sea (eg the pontic Sindoi). Nair was previously citing a date of 50,000 for Oppenheimer which he ceased to do after i bought up oppenheimer's 10,000 BP evidence for indian origin of euro lines.
<!--QuoteBegin-->QUOTE<!--QuoteEBegin-->>>6. The currently accepted Aryan Migration (to India from Europe) theory is based on linguistic evidence that needs to be explained. That is, to explain the existence of Indo-Aryan languages in the North, and Dravidian languages in the South. This theory postulates this migration (cultural, if not genetic) to have occured ONLY within the last 6000 years.<<<!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->
As pointed out by someone else on sulekha, no one has a heart attack when placing origin of at least four to five language families in and around the anatolia cubicle. these type of hysterics are reserved only for Indians. Also why would dravidian center of gravity be in TN if it had originated in N India. In that case the center of gravity would be Maharashtra or thereabouts
<!--QuoteBegin-->QUOTE<!--QuoteEBegin-->>>7. The above is a working hypothesis to explain the linguitic evidence and has no political overtones. This is a hypothesis that can be easily falsified if contrary evidence comes up some time in the future.>><!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->
This fabled Linguistic evidence was taken care long time back by Talageri and Elst.
<!--QuoteBegin-->QUOTE<!--QuoteEBegin-->>>1. Agriculture and animal domestication had not been accomplished by man ANYWHERE in the world till 10,000 years from the present times.<<<!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->
As i said to him earlier, emigration from India would have accelerated as India approached Neolithic and a catastrophic cultural shift as presupposed by AIT is inconceivable with the start of neolithic. Same can be said for the other major neolithic which is chinese.
<!--QuoteBegin-->QUOTE<!--QuoteEBegin-->>>>2. In South Asia (that is in the region of present day Pakistan and Afghanistan), farming was introduced for the first time only 6000 years back!<<<<!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->
This is a malicious lie. All archaeologists trace independent Neolithic development in SSVC down to Mehrgarh which is dated to 9000BP, by even the pakis. Oldest neolithic is taro horticulture in N. Guinea as pointed out by Oppenheimer in his first book. And if there was diffusion of the neolithic, then it must have been from east to west
<!--QuoteBegin-->QUOTE<!--QuoteEBegin-->>>>3. The above means that that the Vedic (agricultural) civilazation is LESS THAN 6000 years old. Before that we were hunter gathererers.>>><!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->
Even as hunter gatherers, India was a five steps ahead of rest of the backwater regions of asia. that is why here was so much emigration form india to regions north, etc, as proved by oppenheimer. there was footnote in deriyangala's book that archeologists in the Sri Lanka now test for silica on lithic tools since these were being used to "harvest cereals" at 17,000 BCE (horton plains). This book was taken taken offline as of yesterday and there is some german error signal in its place. Anyone can test an see that the link that i cited earlier to earlier has been disabled.
<!--QuoteBegin-->QUOTE<!--QuoteEBegin-->>>4. DNA studies (by Openheimer or any one else) have NOT revealed any genetic migration from India to Europe (or vice versa) in the last 10,000 years.>><!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->
Not true. Figure 1.3 on page 135 derives euro mtdna lines J and T1 from the Near East at dates a few thousand years after 10K BP. All these lines had originally come out of india. Also the route taken by gypsies into the balkan heartland for Europe is the prototype for indian migration via the Mideast conduit. Again, the value of Oppenheimer is the overarching pattern he proves for east to west transmission.
As i said to NAir on Sulekha:
"The fact remains that to explain the genetics of Indians, the presence of Europeans is inconsequential. However, to explain the genetics of Europeans, a profound Indian ancestry must be assumed."
<!--QuoteBegin-->QUOTE<!--QuoteEBegin-->>>>5. Thus it is clear that THERE IS NO GENETIC EVIDENCE that there was any migration of genes from India to Europe AFTER the emergence of the Vedic culture.<<<!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->
which, even if true ( and it certainly is not as shown in figure 1.3 ), is negated by the fact that there is plenty of textual and cultural evidence for Indic inundation of regions as far as the black sea (eg the pontic Sindoi). Nair was previously citing a date of 50,000 for Oppenheimer which he ceased to do after i bought up oppenheimer's 10,000 BP evidence for indian origin of euro lines.
<!--QuoteBegin-->QUOTE<!--QuoteEBegin-->>>6. The currently accepted Aryan Migration (to India from Europe) theory is based on linguistic evidence that needs to be explained. That is, to explain the existence of Indo-Aryan languages in the North, and Dravidian languages in the South. This theory postulates this migration (cultural, if not genetic) to have occured ONLY within the last 6000 years.<<<!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->
As pointed out by someone else on sulekha, no one has a heart attack when placing origin of at least four to five language families in and around the anatolia cubicle. these type of hysterics are reserved only for Indians. Also why would dravidian center of gravity be in TN if it had originated in N India. In that case the center of gravity would be Maharashtra or thereabouts
<!--QuoteBegin-->QUOTE<!--QuoteEBegin-->>>7. The above is a working hypothesis to explain the linguitic evidence and has no political overtones. This is a hypothesis that can be easily falsified if contrary evidence comes up some time in the future.>><!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->
This fabled Linguistic evidence was taken care long time back by Talageri and Elst.