05-04-2006, 12:48 AM
<!--QuoteBegin-->QUOTE<!--QuoteEBegin-->But, i still do not understand why he makes a comment that there is a separate Aryan or Indo aryan language and then a dravidian language. <!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->
neither do i. but an attempt at explaining maybe why:
he treats it as an assumption. and then proceeds to investigate whether the 'indus script' is dravidian or indo aryan. he believes (AND HOPES TO PROVE BUT DOUBTS IF HE CAN IN HIS LIFETIME) that the script's language is of more dravidian affinity than indo euopean. this does not mean that he believes in the assumption - it may be wrong (as i fear he strongly suspects in places but then he's wearing blinders, true - like when he admits that there isn't a drav. lang. other thanclassical tamil that is free of indo aryan (or IE) influences...but this is where he may be willingly blinding himself?). lastly, we make a grave mistake repeatedly referring to the indus script/seals as a language (to reiterate, mahadevan's mission is<b> to endeavour to prove that the script's language is of more dravidian affinity than indo european</b>....this can be only if the script corresponded to any language at all?....or best-case-scenario: if it corresponded to any language still extant or already decoded?)
neither do i. but an attempt at explaining maybe why:
he treats it as an assumption. and then proceeds to investigate whether the 'indus script' is dravidian or indo aryan. he believes (AND HOPES TO PROVE BUT DOUBTS IF HE CAN IN HIS LIFETIME) that the script's language is of more dravidian affinity than indo euopean. this does not mean that he believes in the assumption - it may be wrong (as i fear he strongly suspects in places but then he's wearing blinders, true - like when he admits that there isn't a drav. lang. other thanclassical tamil that is free of indo aryan (or IE) influences...but this is where he may be willingly blinding himself?). lastly, we make a grave mistake repeatedly referring to the indus script/seals as a language (to reiterate, mahadevan's mission is<b> to endeavour to prove that the script's language is of more dravidian affinity than indo european</b>....this can be only if the script corresponded to any language at all?....or best-case-scenario: if it corresponded to any language still extant or already decoded?)