09-06-2006, 09:55 AM
<!--QuoteBegin-Bodhi+Sep 6 2006, 08:32 AM-->QUOTE(Bodhi @ Sep 6 2006, 08:32 AM)<!--QuoteEBegin-->Would like some answers on one particular aspect of this history : Rajput - Muslim matrimonial alliance.
1) When did Rajputs start giving their daughters in marriage to Muslims? Did it start with Akbar-Man Singh?
2) More important - why and how would this start? As we know from Rani Padmini's story, Rajputs can bet anything for the honour of their women? (Even Babarnama at least attests this aspect). So what could force/motivate them into these alliances? Or these alliance were not considered dishonor?
3) Was this matrimonial relationship one-way only? Or do we have records of mughals also giving their daughters to Rajput princes?
4)Did Rajputs consider this an insult or honour or no difference? Any records?
5)Are such examples few and far-in between, or a regular affaire?
6)Other than rajputs, are there recrds of any other Hindu princes giving their daughters in marriage to Muslims?
7)What is the last such reported mariage of Rajput-Muslims?
8)Was Jahangir son of Jodhabai? Did a Hindu mother have any psychological impact on Jahangir - like soft corner towards Hindus etc.?
[right][snapback]56881[/snapback][/right]
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The link here gives a lot of these alliances and to answer question 5) it was not few and far-in between.
http://www.uq.net.au/~zzhsoszy/ips/misc/mughal.html
I do not want to point or show any particular community as bad but historically this is what happened. It shows that Akbar had married a lot of Rajput princesses and not just the one from Jaipur. Then Jahangir who followed Akbar also had several wives, from Amber/Jaipur, Jodhpur and Bikaner. We also find that a lot of these wives were either committing suicides or just dying early.
It was a very bad period.
DILDAR
1) When did Rajputs start giving their daughters in marriage to Muslims? Did it start with Akbar-Man Singh?
2) More important - why and how would this start? As we know from Rani Padmini's story, Rajputs can bet anything for the honour of their women? (Even Babarnama at least attests this aspect). So what could force/motivate them into these alliances? Or these alliance were not considered dishonor?
3) Was this matrimonial relationship one-way only? Or do we have records of mughals also giving their daughters to Rajput princes?
4)Did Rajputs consider this an insult or honour or no difference? Any records?
5)Are such examples few and far-in between, or a regular affaire?
6)Other than rajputs, are there recrds of any other Hindu princes giving their daughters in marriage to Muslims?
7)What is the last such reported mariage of Rajput-Muslims?
8)Was Jahangir son of Jodhabai? Did a Hindu mother have any psychological impact on Jahangir - like soft corner towards Hindus etc.?
[right][snapback]56881[/snapback][/right]
<!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->
The link here gives a lot of these alliances and to answer question 5) it was not few and far-in between.
http://www.uq.net.au/~zzhsoszy/ips/misc/mughal.html
I do not want to point or show any particular community as bad but historically this is what happened. It shows that Akbar had married a lot of Rajput princesses and not just the one from Jaipur. Then Jahangir who followed Akbar also had several wives, from Amber/Jaipur, Jodhpur and Bikaner. We also find that a lot of these wives were either committing suicides or just dying early.
It was a very bad period.
DILDAR