12-29-2006, 09:45 PM
<!--QuoteBegin-utepian+Dec 30 2006, 02:13 AM-->QUOTE(utepian @ Dec 30 2006, 02:13 AM)<!--QuoteEBegin-->Thank you Vishwas for taking it in the spirit. For a moment I thought you were defending the savages, when you asked in bold letters for "evidence" of arrogance of these inhuman barbarians.
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Can you point to my post where I asked for evidence of "arrogance"? I don't think I ever did.
<!--QuoteBegin-->QUOTE<!--QuoteEBegin-->Why such hard and fast requirement? Just why?<!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->
Fatigue. Fatigue with the argument that caste is the source of all of India's problems. Fatigue with the use of simple, standard models as a substitute for thinking.
<!--QuoteBegin-->QUOTE<!--QuoteEBegin--><!--QuoteBegin--><div class='quotetop'>QUOTE<!--QuoteEBegin-->Caste atrocities have occurred in other places in the past, and I am familiar with them. But, where they have occurred, they were perpetrated against the entire lower caste population of a village, not against a single family, and that too a very caste-specific provocation, like not showing "sufficient respect" to the land-owning caste. That is not the case here.
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Thank you for corroborating. But does it mean that an isolated incident does not occur at all? Come on. I have known personal incidents (certainly none passes the nature of this one) where individuals or individual Dalit families have been mauled just because they tried to prosper.
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No, isolated incidents against single families can occur. However, those who use the caste argument in such cases, must shoulder a greater burden of proof. After all, a multiple-murder action against a single family by 11 individuals, when atleast one other Dalit family lives in the village unharmed, is susceptible to many explanations besides caste. Especially when we know that the history of the relationship between that family and those villagers included a long-standing and pretty bitter land dispute. Does caste wholly explain the murder? Have other explanations even been explored, by you or members of the media?
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Can you point to my post where I asked for evidence of "arrogance"? I don't think I ever did.
<!--QuoteBegin-->QUOTE<!--QuoteEBegin-->Why such hard and fast requirement? Just why?<!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->
Fatigue. Fatigue with the argument that caste is the source of all of India's problems. Fatigue with the use of simple, standard models as a substitute for thinking.
<!--QuoteBegin-->QUOTE<!--QuoteEBegin--><!--QuoteBegin--><div class='quotetop'>QUOTE<!--QuoteEBegin-->Caste atrocities have occurred in other places in the past, and I am familiar with them. But, where they have occurred, they were perpetrated against the entire lower caste population of a village, not against a single family, and that too a very caste-specific provocation, like not showing "sufficient respect" to the land-owning caste. That is not the case here.
<!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->
Thank you for corroborating. But does it mean that an isolated incident does not occur at all? Come on. I have known personal incidents (certainly none passes the nature of this one) where individuals or individual Dalit families have been mauled just because they tried to prosper.
<!--QuoteEnd--></div><!--QuoteEEnd-->
No, isolated incidents against single families can occur. However, those who use the caste argument in such cases, must shoulder a greater burden of proof. After all, a multiple-murder action against a single family by 11 individuals, when atleast one other Dalit family lives in the village unharmed, is susceptible to many explanations besides caste. Especially when we know that the history of the relationship between that family and those villagers included a long-standing and pretty bitter land dispute. Does caste wholly explain the murder? Have other explanations even been explored, by you or members of the media?
