06-25-2007, 04:21 AM
<!--QuoteBegin-ben_ami+Jul 26 2006, 11:51 PM-->QUOTE(ben_ami @ Jul 26 2006, 11:51 PM)<!--QuoteEBegin--><!--QuoteBegin-acharya+Jul 27 2006, 02:59 AM--><div class='quotetop'>QUOTE(acharya @ Jul 27 2006, 02:59 AM)<!--QuoteEBegin-->THis is a linguistic question. This thread is only for unmasking AIT.
Please put it in the linguistic thread. Philology and linguistics are not exact science and the tradition and precedence of 100 years is still carried out in the linguistic community.
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true that mine is specifically a linguistic question.
but the AIT or its alternative has to explain a lot of things, linguistic or otherwise.
the horse thingie, the "sea" in the vedas, <b>the real date of the writing of the vedas etc etc.</b>
the linquistic part is also one of the main points that needs be resolved, along wit genetics based arguements, archeology based arguements etc etc. cant leave ANY loose strings.
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Sorry to quote this late in the thread.. but with what little i can think:-
There is no real date for vedas. Yes. Thats what it is.. It is wisdom manifests the language of Gods(this itself is a modern definition) for humans. No body wrote it to take individual credits.
Ved Vyaas did not write vedas, but he compiled them.
One of the best guess could be that it is so old that the language had no written form (only spoken), plus giving the uderstandings of collective intelligence of man who lived perhaps millions or years or as old one can think off... One could say in modern way, that is a human experience,.. even the earlier or well known Hindu Gods lived with Vedic wisdom.
Thus, vedas gives a fanstastic linkage between Man, Intelligence & collective wisdom, and Science. Gods and Lords are the new age concepts after invasionists ( christians, greeks, mohammad etc)started plundering the vedic thoughts since 2 thousand plus years.
Please put it in the linguistic thread. Philology and linguistics are not exact science and the tradition and precedence of 100 years is still carried out in the linguistic community.
[right][snapback]54648[/snapback][/right]
<!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->
true that mine is specifically a linguistic question.
but the AIT or its alternative has to explain a lot of things, linguistic or otherwise.
the horse thingie, the "sea" in the vedas, <b>the real date of the writing of the vedas etc etc.</b>
the linquistic part is also one of the main points that needs be resolved, along wit genetics based arguements, archeology based arguements etc etc. cant leave ANY loose strings.
[right][snapback]54668[/snapback][/right]
<!--QuoteEnd--></div><!--QuoteEEnd-->
Sorry to quote this late in the thread.. but with what little i can think:-
There is no real date for vedas. Yes. Thats what it is.. It is wisdom manifests the language of Gods(this itself is a modern definition) for humans. No body wrote it to take individual credits.
Ved Vyaas did not write vedas, but he compiled them.
One of the best guess could be that it is so old that the language had no written form (only spoken), plus giving the uderstandings of collective intelligence of man who lived perhaps millions or years or as old one can think off... One could say in modern way, that is a human experience,.. even the earlier or well known Hindu Gods lived with Vedic wisdom.
Thus, vedas gives a fanstastic linkage between Man, Intelligence & collective wisdom, and Science. Gods and Lords are the new age concepts after invasionists ( christians, greeks, mohammad etc)started plundering the vedic thoughts since 2 thousand plus years.