10-28-2004, 05:09 AM
Dhu,
Could you please update the link that you posted ? Somehow it gives me an error.. <!--emo&
--><img src='style_emoticons/<#EMO_DIR#>/sad.gif' border='0' style='vertical-align:middle' alt='sad.gif' /><!--endemo-->
Can knowledgeable folks please answer the foll questions ?
<!--QuoteBegin-->QUOTE<!--QuoteEBegin-->Indians appear to display the higher diversity both in haplogroups 3 and 9 -- even if a pooled sample of eastern and southern European populations was considered.<!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->
What does this mean ? What does "higher diversity" mean ?
<!--QuoteBegin-->QUOTE<!--QuoteEBegin-->By the end of the Neolithic in southwestern Asia, about 6000 years ago, agriculture had spread west and east into Europe, northern Africa and central and southern Asia, where new domesticates were added to the growing repertoire of crops.
Agriculture began independently in China between 7000 and 6000 BC, in the Americas by about 3000 BC and in tropical Africa by about 2000 BC. By the time of the European expansion in the 16th century AD agricultural and pastoral economies occupied most of Eurasia, Africa and Central and South America.<!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->
How do we know this ? When did agriculture start in south asia ? Was it independent ? In general my understanding of the AIT/AMT proponents' argument is that an invasion happened some 4-5k yrs ago ? How does this new info refute that ? After the migration out of India towards Europe so many years ago and being cutoff for some time couldnt they have just come back ? I read somewhere that some markers were more prominent towards southeast of India while some others were more prominent towards north-west. How does this new finding refute that ? I am not molecular biologist so please bear with me.. <!--emo&--><img src='style_emoticons/<#EMO_DIR#>/sad.gif' border='0' style='vertical-align:middle' alt='sad.gif' /><!--endemo-->
Could you please update the link that you posted ? Somehow it gives me an error.. <!--emo&
--><img src='style_emoticons/<#EMO_DIR#>/sad.gif' border='0' style='vertical-align:middle' alt='sad.gif' /><!--endemo-->Can knowledgeable folks please answer the foll questions ?
<!--QuoteBegin-->QUOTE<!--QuoteEBegin-->Indians appear to display the higher diversity both in haplogroups 3 and 9 -- even if a pooled sample of eastern and southern European populations was considered.<!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->
What does this mean ? What does "higher diversity" mean ?
<!--QuoteBegin-->QUOTE<!--QuoteEBegin-->By the end of the Neolithic in southwestern Asia, about 6000 years ago, agriculture had spread west and east into Europe, northern Africa and central and southern Asia, where new domesticates were added to the growing repertoire of crops.
Agriculture began independently in China between 7000 and 6000 BC, in the Americas by about 3000 BC and in tropical Africa by about 2000 BC. By the time of the European expansion in the 16th century AD agricultural and pastoral economies occupied most of Eurasia, Africa and Central and South America.<!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->
How do we know this ? When did agriculture start in south asia ? Was it independent ? In general my understanding of the AIT/AMT proponents' argument is that an invasion happened some 4-5k yrs ago ? How does this new info refute that ? After the migration out of India towards Europe so many years ago and being cutoff for some time couldnt they have just come back ? I read somewhere that some markers were more prominent towards southeast of India while some others were more prominent towards north-west. How does this new finding refute that ? I am not molecular biologist so please bear with me.. <!--emo&
--><img src='style_emoticons/<#EMO_DIR#>/sad.gif' border='0' style='vertical-align:middle' alt='sad.gif' /><!--endemo-->