01-22-2009, 05:16 AM
<!--QuoteBegin-->QUOTE<!--QuoteEBegin-->To your question:
"How could these Jews "misunderstand" their Holy Writings so deeply?"
They didn't. The passages you cite are not exceptions but fit into a
singular interpretive framework of Jewish scripture. Simply compare
any of the `misunderstandings' of Jewish scripture in the Gospels to
the `misunderstandings' in Josephus and it is clear that both texts
share the mindset of the Flavian court. <b>In both `histories' the
prophecies of Daniel and Jeremiah came to pass during a campaign</b>
which the Galilean towns were laid low, Jerusalem was encircled with
a wall, and <b>the Temple was razed. </b>Also note these subjects are
covered in the same order in both works.
The real question is this:
If the Gospels and the works of Josephus were produced by different
groups, how did each group come to record that Titus was the `son of
Man'?
Joe Atwill
<!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->
"How could these Jews "misunderstand" their Holy Writings so deeply?"
They didn't. The passages you cite are not exceptions but fit into a
singular interpretive framework of Jewish scripture. Simply compare
any of the `misunderstandings' of Jewish scripture in the Gospels to
the `misunderstandings' in Josephus and it is clear that both texts
share the mindset of the Flavian court. <b>In both `histories' the
prophecies of Daniel and Jeremiah came to pass during a campaign</b>
which the Galilean towns were laid low, Jerusalem was encircled with
a wall, and <b>the Temple was razed. </b>Also note these subjects are
covered in the same order in both works.
The real question is this:
If the Gospels and the works of Josephus were produced by different
groups, how did each group come to record that Titus was the `son of
Man'?
Joe Atwill
<!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->