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What DNA Says About Aryan Invasion Theory -2
<!--QuoteBegin-dhu+Oct 4 2009, 06:35 AM-->QUOTE(dhu @ Oct 4 2009, 06:35 AM)<!--QuoteEBegin-->Variance of R1b increases towards the East - such that even eurocentric wiki states that R1b originated in either C Asia or Anatolia (actually C Asia).  R2 is localized only to India and diversity of R1 is greatest in South India; if one clade is strictly local and the other equivalent clade has spread, then it is obvious that the origin is to be sought in the area where the two clades intersect.  Coupled with the fact that upstream K (dubbed Krishna by Oppenheimer) so obviously diversified in India, (wiki again states that K2-T originated in Asia and K2 is just one branch in K), the origin of R can only be India.  In addition, given that R is a late branch, there is no way that it can originate in c europe with complete absence of the progenitor K types.  It is simply has to be an entrant from S Asia!
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Only because the frequency of R2 is biggest in India doesnt mean that originate there.Just like R1b didnt originate in Europe despite the fact that frequency is the biggest there.We must know the diversity(variance) of R2 in order to know more about origin.
K and R mutations are separated by thousands of years so is not necessary to have th e origin in the same place.

Farmers have 2 big advantages of spreading their genes over the hunter-gatherers ;one they can have support 10-100 more people and in all the world the male farmer married hunter gatherer doter.

A language cant be older then 20000 years and the evidence for this is the big numer of languages and family languages .We assume that the small group that leave Africa spoke the same language.
And we observ many languages in hunter-gatherer areas(Papua) so we assume that this was the rule in paleolithic.
In America we have many language family formed in less the 20000 years from a small number of imigrants from Siberia(whic probably didnt spoke more the 1-3 languages).
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