02-07-2010, 01:01 AM
Playing the devil's advocate (I should not be really, because I know nothing about genetics), if we consider as per Oppenheimer that humans from S.Asia were the ones that populated Europe; how does one counter an argument that "Isn't it still possible that humans from Central Asia migrated down to South Asia?" That is after they acknowledge the first migration from India to Europe; on what basis can we refute any claim that there was not one more stream of migration from C.Asia to S.Asia - ie. Aryans coming into India?