India definitely is within the Euro-Abrahamic horizon since the inception but they had to consolidate all the intervening areas before proceeding to India. Just look at two examples:
Actual Indian Roma proceed to Europe in their Vardos: But, it is Egypt which gets blamed. (similar to the damning of Egypt in the OT?).
The entire Native American population gets wiped out as they search for Indians: an Indian identity is foisted upon these hapless targets.
In both the cases, they manage to obscure the identity of the Indians. It is a sign of deep fixation. Of course, they do find Indians at last...
India figures very highly in the euro consciousness in all periods. So why should the consciousness of India dim as we proceed closer to the initiating event, as maintained by the conventional account? Isn't such a stance colored by a belief in original sin, and ignorance as the natural state?
We can deny these realities but only by drawing a distinction between the intentional and the unintentional, which itself is problematic, and especially so for the untiring champions of the 'divine plan' and 'will to power'.
I think you are remembering that post stating that: references to India in the West have always been concrete, and the reverse representations have not.
Actual Indian Roma proceed to Europe in their Vardos: But, it is Egypt which gets blamed. (similar to the damning of Egypt in the OT?).
The entire Native American population gets wiped out as they search for Indians: an Indian identity is foisted upon these hapless targets.
In both the cases, they manage to obscure the identity of the Indians. It is a sign of deep fixation. Of course, they do find Indians at last...
India figures very highly in the euro consciousness in all periods. So why should the consciousness of India dim as we proceed closer to the initiating event, as maintained by the conventional account? Isn't such a stance colored by a belief in original sin, and ignorance as the natural state?
We can deny these realities but only by drawing a distinction between the intentional and the unintentional, which itself is problematic, and especially so for the untiring champions of the 'divine plan' and 'will to power'.
I think you are remembering that post stating that: references to India in the West have always been concrete, and the reverse representations have not.