What DNA Says About Aryan Invasion Theory -2

[Guest]

Dhu ji, Husky ji and other gurus,

I am reading through the posts in this thread. I am not a geneticist. So is it possible for anyone to kindly explain the current argument about R1a1 being Euroean? some blogs by Europeans are already claiming victory quoting 2009 Reich's paper as well as this paper:

The Indian origin of paternal haplogroup R1a1(*) substantiates the autochthonous origin of Brahmins and the caste system. Sharma S. et al.

to say that R1a1 is basically a Brahmin gene. This argument is very similar to above post by Husky ji, how Brahmins and thus vedas and sanskrit are being given a foreign origin.



Please be kind to me and kindly explain what is this R1a1 business about? is this the same marker as R gene which Oppenheimer states to have Indian subcontinent as origin? if so, why is that after Reich's paper Europeans are now claiming that it's origins are European? did the origin change early holocene? Some put the origin of R1a1 in Hungary. I understand high diversity in India makes it's presence in India to be old, but again Europeans too are claiming the diversity of R1a1, so I am confused. Kindly clarify as if you are talking to a guy with very basic understanding of genes if you can. I am sure many like me are as confused as well.



Please look at the following blogs, he puts the origin of R1a1 in Hungary

http://olemski.blogspot.com/2011/09/viki...opeer.html