06-30-2006, 11:09 PM
You mean Pahaganj from Delhi?
Is true that this cultures aint have same number of population ,but i talk more about influence on the world.. Is true that Europe wasnt a unified entity,this cultural unification started whit halstad in 1200Bc and especialy whit greeks starting from 500BC.BUT this is true also for India,for exemple,in neolithic Bengal and Tamil Nadu cultures was dieferent the Indus civilisation. You said that Europe was behind oriental cultures.THis aint true an least not for 7000-3000BC and 1500-2006 period.Thw existence of large number of megalites from that required a high tehnology is a evidence for this.Also the religion show continuity.The paleolithic Dancing wizard is find also in celtic cult and also in indus pashupati-lord of beasts.Is true that indian paleolithic art is more diverese then european one ,were in paleolithic India you find so much expresivity as in Altamira or Lascaux paintings?
Acording to paleolitic linguistric theory,the IE languages developed in central-asia(a few say middle east),and spread in Europe in 22000BC(the gravetian culture).the gravetian genes represents today 60-70% of european genom.10% of euro genom belong to europeans came in europe in 40000BC such as basque.The ice age separated europe in several izolated human pokets each forming a linguistic IE family .The central-asians who remain in central-asia develop a form of proto-agriculture,increase large in number,as agriculture suport more people then hunting,and in 15000Bc they reach india.During the ice age the north india was desert or semi-desert cos of ice age.They form the indo-iranian branch of IE.Are some genetics that show a split betwin slavs and indians 8000-15000 years ago.However this studies doesnt show what percent of indians are from central-asia nor what was the population of india prior to 15000bc.This study is incomplete from that point of view.
If all non-african genom came from India,which is hard to belive,this aint answer to the qwestion of why india have a majority of IE speakers.If all non-african genom came from india and the families of language was already formed,india today should be a big mozaic of language families ; turco-mongoles,IE,sino-tibetan,finno-ugric,malayesian,australian,basque,amerindian,caucasian etc etc.The IE will be in a small minority most posible.But what we find?MOstly only 2 language families,IE and tamilian.About mongoloid speakers in india,genetic show that they came in india recently in 4000 bc.THis theory doesnt resolve the linguistic problem but put the same question as in AIT: how a small minority IE can impose his language over a much large non-IE majority?
Is true that north and south indians are from the same genetic stock.However south indians have some admixture of australoid genes,but this admixture also have the south chinese ,malayesians,thailandese and may be even some iranian or arabs.Is a comon mistake to see australoids as africans only becose their black skinand broad noses.Australoids are as far from africans as white europeans are.Are 5 races:caucasoid(north africa,europe,midle east,india),mongoloid(china,siberia),australoid(australia,some small pokets in south east asia),afroid(subsaharian africa)amerindian(maya inca).
Neolithic theory belive that IE was spread from Turkey and Kurdistan were was a agricultural revolution.We see this expansion to europe as:turkey,to balcans,to italy ,to spain and central europe;a movement from SE to NV and V.And from V to E as :turkey ,to afganistan-pakistan(Mehrgarh),to indus ,to gange.This agriculturalist from kurdistan and turkey form 20% of european genom. This theory have 3 problems:1-this revolution wasnt spread only to europe and india but also in sumer and arabia and we dont find IE speakers here.2-this agriculturist was in minority(only 20% in europe) ,how they succed to impose their language to a more biger populatrion.3-were this agriculturalist apear especialy in the places were we find large populations of non-IE speakers like cretans ,etruscians,pelasgian ,lemnian etc.So,most probably this agriculturalists was non-IE speakers..
The old towns and vilages are a reproduction at a small scale of the mitical univers.The 2 main roads folow the cardinal points N-S and E-V.This old model we find in towns of africa ,india, midle east.When the population reach a limit the son or sons of king or guvernator left whit a part ofpopulation and establish a new village or town similar in structure whit the mother town( this u can find in history of religions by MIrcea Eliade).
You say that a town from india is from 7000bc.well Jerihon -Israel is from 9000bc. THe cucuteni culture towns(10000loc) are biger the the pre-sumerian towns(5000loc) of pre-sumerian AL-Ubaid culture.Catal Huyuk from turkey is older even the this al ubaid towns,so i dont know why some regards sumerians as the inventatores of the town.
A few words abt balkanic neolithic cultures:like indus people ,they inhumate their deads,after invasions they start to incinerate their deads;they colored the wall houses whit red,blue,green,yellow;the house walls have decorations;they have similar yoga tehnics and also practice acupuncture(their acupuncture is female base ,while chinese one is male base),;they have same cult of fertility gods as indus people;they have similar artistic principles;etc.Starting from 4000bc the balkanic culture fall one after another under repeated invasions of kurgan peoplefrom the north of black sea.In the same time the climate become more dryier.The europe enter in his first dark age.THis make the end of a posible civilisation at the same hight as the egipt,sumer or indus.
You cant compare Vedas whit semitic writings because only IE languageshave the natural tendency for philosophy while semitic languages have a tendency for law and morality.Similar whit veda are avesta and especialy the hittite hymns, which also have a elevate language.Though veda arent philosophical in the true sense of the word .What we call philosophy sistem starts from 800bc.The pre-cristian religions in europe was very similar whit brahmanism.The germans,thracians (the most noumeros people after indians -Herodot say,),celts and most of europe was belive in reincarnation.The diference whit indian religion was the lack of philosophy.The greeks and etruscans was having a diferentreligion.Iven they shared the gods of europeans their life conception was more similar whit sumer and egiptian one.For exemple reincarnation just as in sumer or egipt,didnt play any role .The reincarnation concept was introduced by the thracians whit their mystery cults of Orfeus and Dioniossos,which have a great influence over greek philosophers like PLaton( who develop a philosophy similar whit jainism).
In a clasament made by ancient greeks over the nation whit philosophy and wisdom they put the greeks on the first place,brahmans on the secons place,thracians(ancestors of romanians and bulgarians)on the 3th,and egiptians on 4.This was true for philosophy ,but in medicine,metalurgy ,astronomy etc ,thracians was far superior the greeks.
Is true that this cultures aint have same number of population ,but i talk more about influence on the world.. Is true that Europe wasnt a unified entity,this cultural unification started whit halstad in 1200Bc and especialy whit greeks starting from 500BC.BUT this is true also for India,for exemple,in neolithic Bengal and Tamil Nadu cultures was dieferent the Indus civilisation. You said that Europe was behind oriental cultures.THis aint true an least not for 7000-3000BC and 1500-2006 period.Thw existence of large number of megalites from that required a high tehnology is a evidence for this.Also the religion show continuity.The paleolithic Dancing wizard is find also in celtic cult and also in indus pashupati-lord of beasts.Is true that indian paleolithic art is more diverese then european one ,were in paleolithic India you find so much expresivity as in Altamira or Lascaux paintings?
Acording to paleolitic linguistric theory,the IE languages developed in central-asia(a few say middle east),and spread in Europe in 22000BC(the gravetian culture).the gravetian genes represents today 60-70% of european genom.10% of euro genom belong to europeans came in europe in 40000BC such as basque.The ice age separated europe in several izolated human pokets each forming a linguistic IE family .The central-asians who remain in central-asia develop a form of proto-agriculture,increase large in number,as agriculture suport more people then hunting,and in 15000Bc they reach india.During the ice age the north india was desert or semi-desert cos of ice age.They form the indo-iranian branch of IE.Are some genetics that show a split betwin slavs and indians 8000-15000 years ago.However this studies doesnt show what percent of indians are from central-asia nor what was the population of india prior to 15000bc.This study is incomplete from that point of view.
If all non-african genom came from India,which is hard to belive,this aint answer to the qwestion of why india have a majority of IE speakers.If all non-african genom came from india and the families of language was already formed,india today should be a big mozaic of language families ; turco-mongoles,IE,sino-tibetan,finno-ugric,malayesian,australian,basque,amerindian,caucasian etc etc.The IE will be in a small minority most posible.But what we find?MOstly only 2 language families,IE and tamilian.About mongoloid speakers in india,genetic show that they came in india recently in 4000 bc.THis theory doesnt resolve the linguistic problem but put the same question as in AIT: how a small minority IE can impose his language over a much large non-IE majority?
Is true that north and south indians are from the same genetic stock.However south indians have some admixture of australoid genes,but this admixture also have the south chinese ,malayesians,thailandese and may be even some iranian or arabs.Is a comon mistake to see australoids as africans only becose their black skinand broad noses.Australoids are as far from africans as white europeans are.Are 5 races:caucasoid(north africa,europe,midle east,india),mongoloid(china,siberia),australoid(australia,some small pokets in south east asia),afroid(subsaharian africa)amerindian(maya inca).
Neolithic theory belive that IE was spread from Turkey and Kurdistan were was a agricultural revolution.We see this expansion to europe as:turkey,to balcans,to italy ,to spain and central europe;a movement from SE to NV and V.And from V to E as :turkey ,to afganistan-pakistan(Mehrgarh),to indus ,to gange.This agriculturalist from kurdistan and turkey form 20% of european genom. This theory have 3 problems:1-this revolution wasnt spread only to europe and india but also in sumer and arabia and we dont find IE speakers here.2-this agriculturist was in minority(only 20% in europe) ,how they succed to impose their language to a more biger populatrion.3-were this agriculturalist apear especialy in the places were we find large populations of non-IE speakers like cretans ,etruscians,pelasgian ,lemnian etc.So,most probably this agriculturalists was non-IE speakers..
The old towns and vilages are a reproduction at a small scale of the mitical univers.The 2 main roads folow the cardinal points N-S and E-V.This old model we find in towns of africa ,india, midle east.When the population reach a limit the son or sons of king or guvernator left whit a part ofpopulation and establish a new village or town similar in structure whit the mother town( this u can find in history of religions by MIrcea Eliade).
You say that a town from india is from 7000bc.well Jerihon -Israel is from 9000bc. THe cucuteni culture towns(10000loc) are biger the the pre-sumerian towns(5000loc) of pre-sumerian AL-Ubaid culture.Catal Huyuk from turkey is older even the this al ubaid towns,so i dont know why some regards sumerians as the inventatores of the town.
A few words abt balkanic neolithic cultures:like indus people ,they inhumate their deads,after invasions they start to incinerate their deads;they colored the wall houses whit red,blue,green,yellow;the house walls have decorations;they have similar yoga tehnics and also practice acupuncture(their acupuncture is female base ,while chinese one is male base),;they have same cult of fertility gods as indus people;they have similar artistic principles;etc.Starting from 4000bc the balkanic culture fall one after another under repeated invasions of kurgan peoplefrom the north of black sea.In the same time the climate become more dryier.The europe enter in his first dark age.THis make the end of a posible civilisation at the same hight as the egipt,sumer or indus.
You cant compare Vedas whit semitic writings because only IE languageshave the natural tendency for philosophy while semitic languages have a tendency for law and morality.Similar whit veda are avesta and especialy the hittite hymns, which also have a elevate language.Though veda arent philosophical in the true sense of the word .What we call philosophy sistem starts from 800bc.The pre-cristian religions in europe was very similar whit brahmanism.The germans,thracians (the most noumeros people after indians -Herodot say,),celts and most of europe was belive in reincarnation.The diference whit indian religion was the lack of philosophy.The greeks and etruscans was having a diferentreligion.Iven they shared the gods of europeans their life conception was more similar whit sumer and egiptian one.For exemple reincarnation just as in sumer or egipt,didnt play any role .The reincarnation concept was introduced by the thracians whit their mystery cults of Orfeus and Dioniossos,which have a great influence over greek philosophers like PLaton( who develop a philosophy similar whit jainism).
In a clasament made by ancient greeks over the nation whit philosophy and wisdom they put the greeks on the first place,brahmans on the secons place,thracians(ancestors of romanians and bulgarians)on the 3th,and egiptians on 4.This was true for philosophy ,but in medicine,metalurgy ,astronomy etc ,thracians was far superior the greeks.